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Exam Code: HP2-H22
Exam Name: HP (Sales Essentials of HP Digital Signage Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 What makes HP a good choice as a digital signage solution provider?
A. HP has a broad portfolio, key partnerships, and a global service organization
B. HP offers hardware and content management software.
C. HP offers content creation services.
D. HP offers PCs and Thin Clients to drive Digital Signage.
Answer: A

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NO.2 To which component of a digital signage network does this definition apply?
"These are generally specialized appliances, based on PC hardware, with special software."
A. content management server
B. digital signage players
C. digital signage transmitters
D. digital signage displays
Answer: A

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NO.3 Many digital signage customers are looking for a quantitative return on investment. Others seek only to
achieve a business objective. Which HP Digital Signage target customer group has "return on objective"
as their number one reason for investing in the solution?
A. In-store merchandising
B. In-store point-of-purchase advertising/promotion
C. Digital-Out-of-Home (DOOH) advertising networks
D. Information/Entertainment networks
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which digital signage solution architecture uses PC based players combined with a server and will
meet the need of customers who want complete control of the infrastructure of their digital signage
network?
A. Simple Content Loop
B. Basic Single-Location Media Playing
C. Premise based system
D. Software-as-a-Service based system
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is the preferred way to describe HP Digital Signage with the Scala Quick Start other than being an
ideal player (or Scala Enterprise networks) ?
A. It is an ideal solution for very large deployments.
B. It provides a full turn-key solution for small deployments and SMB.
C. The QuickStart package includes physical installation of displays
D. It enhances the color pallet displayable on the screen.
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is the typical role of a VAR in the digital signage ecosystem?
A. write and publish digital signage software
B. modify internal digital signage components
C. integrate digital signage hardware and software
D. manufacture digital signage hardware
Answer: C

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NO.7 What are two key facts you should use to overcome an objection from a customer who plans to use a
TV for their digital signage needs? (Select two.)
A. HP Digital Signage can present an image in landscape or portrait orientation.
B. HP Digital Signage displays provide a richer and truer digital image by using more liquid crystals.
C. HP Digital Signage supports IR Remote Control to help prevent accidental changes to displayed
information
D. HP Digital Signage is designed for 24/7 use.
E. The controls on an HP Digital Signage product are easily located and simplify changes that a user
wants to make.
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 The components of a digital signage system consist of Displays, Content Management Software,
Servers, and what additional component.?
A. PC Players
B. Internet Services
C. Security Solutions
D. Accountability Solutions
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which statement is part of the HP Digital Signage Value Proposition?
A. HP Digital Signage products can be used as both a digital signage solution and a digital TV.
B. HP provides customers with a five year warranty and life cycle onall digital signage products. C.HP
Digital Signage products provide sweeping innovations that have made HP the market leader.
C. HP offers certified platforms and commercial grade components that meet demanding 24/7 needs.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which digital signage solution approach uses a USB Thumb Drive and has no scheduling or control of
content delivery?
A. HP Software Driven Media Playing
B. Simple Content Loop
C. Premise based system
D. Software-as-a-Service based system
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP2-T26
Exam Name: HP (Servicing HP BladeSystem Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 263 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which iLO3 MP logs should be looked at to check the hardware status of an HP Integrity BL870c i2
Server Blade? (Select two.)
A. Syslog log
B. System Event log
C. Forward Progress log
D. Machine Check log
E. Resource Monitor log
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 You want to add memory to an existing BL890c i2 server. The new DIMMs have a different size than the
installed ones. Which memory upgrade guideline is correct?
A. Distribute old and new memory evenly on all blade modules, installing the larger ones first.
B. Blade modules 1 and 2 must have one DIMM size, and blade modules 3 and 4 must have the other
DIMM size.
C. Blade modules 1 and 3 must have one DIMM size, and blade modules 2 and 4 must have the other
DIMM size.
D. Distribute old and new memory evenly on all blade modules, installing the smaller ones first.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which benefit is provided by having identical Interconnect modules in adjacent bays of the c7000
enclosure?
A. reduced power requirements
B. dynamicIObandwidth
C. improved uplink failure detection
D. redundant IOcapabilities
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is used to update firmware on several HP VC Ethernet or Fibre Channel modules
simultaneously?
A. VCM
B. HP FDT
C. VCSU
D. OA
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which tool can be used to verify that SNMP events appear in HP SIM from a blade server running
Windows 2008?
A. Onboard Administrator
B. System Management Homepage
C. HP SNMP Agent
D. Integrated Lights-Out
Answer: C

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NO.6 Your Virtual Connect firmware is older than 1.34. What is the recommended upgrade order for the
components in a c7000 enclosure.?
A. Onboard Administrators, Blades, Virtual Connect
B. Virtual Connect, Blades, Onboard Administrators
C. Virtual Connect, Onboard Administrators, Blades
D. Blades, Virtual Connect, Onboard Administrators
Answer: A

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NO.7 A user added a second OA to a c7000 enclosure so the OAs are redundant, however, the modules are
not at the same firmware level. What is an easy way to bring them to the same firmware version?
A. Use HP SUM to update each OA individually.
B. Request that the Admin have SIM push the updates to the each OA.
C. Use HP SUM Offline to update the standby OA, restart it, and repeat the procedure on the remaining
OA.
D. Select the Synchronize Firmware button in either OA.
Answer: D

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NO.8 How should you save a Virtual Connect configuration?
A. from CLI: show all > cfg.txt
B. enclosure setting, configuration scripts, inventory
C. enclosure setting, configuration scripts, show config, save
D. domain setting, backup/restore
Answer: D

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NO.9 What should a support engineer use to perform a firmware update to a c-Class PCI Expansion Blade?
A. OA CLI
B. HP SmartStart
C. Firmware Maintenance DVD
D. OA GUI
Answer: A

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NO.10 HP standard warranties support the HP hardware. What are HP Care Packs designed to support?
A. Software
B. Network
C. Storage
D. Business
Answer: A

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NO.11 What is a DDR3 Memory population rule to follow for Gen8 servers?
A. If only one processor is installed in a two processor system, only half of the DIMM slots are available.
B. DIMMs of different voltages cannot be mixed in the same bank.
C. DIMMs of different speed grades can be mixed.
D. UDIMMs, RDIMMs, or LRDIMMs can be mixed.
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which command should you use to connect to the CLI interface of an HP ProCurve Blade Switch
through the Onboard Administrator?
A. connect interconnect <bay_number>
B. connect switch <bay_number>
C. connect <bay_number>
D. connect server <bay_number>
Answer: A

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NO.13 Your customer has a business critical HP BladeSystem enclosure and wants to protect it with
additional service coverage. The company's requirements are 24x7 and functionality must be restored
within a defined time.
Which HP Service offering is needed to fulfill the customer's requirements?
A. HP Critical Advantage L3
B. HP Proactive Select 30 Credit
C. HP 6 hour Hardware Support Onsite Call-to-Repair Service
D. HP 24x7 hour Response, Hardware Support Onsite Service
Answer: A

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NO.14 What is the advantage of Solid State Drive over I/O Accelerator?
A. It offers higher reliability.
B. It is bootable.
C. It has a longer life span.
D. It has higher throughput.
Answer: A

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NO.15 Why is it considered a best practice to use tools such as HP Smart Update Manager (SUM) and Virtual
Connect Support Utility (VCSU) to deploy firmware components?
A. These tools check the dependencies and limitations.
B. The tools are compatible with all versions of firmware.
C. These are the only tools that can be used to work with Virtual Connect Enterprise Utility (VCEU).
D. These tools are version compatible by design.
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which memory configuration types are supported in the Gen8 ProLiant Blade servers? (Select two.)
A. DDR2
B. SODIMM
C. SDIMM
D. RDIMM
E. UDIMM
Answer: D,E

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NO.17 Which feature should you enable in RBSU in a G7 server to reduce processor power usage and
improve overall performance in some applications?
A. Intel Hyperthreading Options
B. HP Dynamic Power Savings Mode
C. Processor Core Disable
D. HP Static Low Power Mode
E. OS Control Mode
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which Windows commands allow you to get the operating system's version, build, and service patch
level? (Select two.)
A. winver
B. msconfig
C. patch
D. msinfo32
E. swlist
F. uname
Answer: B,D

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NO.19 Which Windows command allows you to see the operating system version and system name,
manufacturer, and model?
A. msconfig
B. uname
C. msinfo32
D. winver
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which tool can be used to upgrade the firmware of Virtual Connect Ethernet module? (Select two.)
A. HP SUM
B. OA
C. VCSU
D. VCEM
E. HP SIM
Answer: C,E

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Exam Code: HP0-J56
Exam Name: HP (3PAR Solutions Advanced Service and Support)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 65 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which statement is true when comparing F400 and V400 controller nodes?
A. Control memory has increased from 6 GB to 16 GB.
B. PCI slots have increased from 6 to 12 per controller node.
C. Data memory has increased from 6 GB to 16 GB
D. Maximum battery life has reduced from 25 to 15 minutes when fully charged.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Your customer has an existing 3PAR T400 array with 128 FC disks. The customer has been
using
System Reporter and now requires policy driven tiering. In addition to the disks, which software is
required to achieve this?
A. Command View
B. System Tuner
C. Dynamic Optimization
D. Adaptive Optimization
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which method can be used to determine that a node has joined a cluster?
A. The node status LED is green and flashing slowly
B. The cluster name displays in green in SPOCC
C. The node name displays in green in the Hardware Inventory tab of IMC
D. The output of cli%showcluster contains a node state of Clustered
Answer: A

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NO.4 How are the ports numbered on a V400 or V800 PCI adapter?
A. From left to right
B. From bottom to top
C. From right to left
D. From top to bottom
Answer: A

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NO.5 You are configuring vStorage APIs for Array Integration (VAAI) Plugin using an HP 3PAR System.
What does the UNMAP functionality provide?
A. It provides notification that the LUN is thin provisioned and gets quota exceeded behavior
check condition from the array.
B. It offers block zeroing used in the combination with HP 3PAR Thin technologies.
C. It avoids locking an entire LUN during VMFS metadata update.
D. It performs a full copy of data within the array.
Answer: B

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NO.6 You are the installing System Reporter with Adapter Optimization. When adding the INSERV
system to be sampled, the customer informs you that they do not want to use the default HP 3PAR
account CLI user, but rather they want to create a specific user for the application. What are the
minimum permissions the customer-created user requires?
A. Create
B. Edit
C. Browse
D. Super
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which statements are true regarding V800 controller nodes? (Select two)
A. Each PCI card may have a maximum of two FC ports.
B. Each controller node has nine PCI slots.
C. Controller nodes support a maximum of 18 FC connections.
D. A PCI slot supports dual-port Converged Network Adapters.
E. Each controller node has four management Ethernet ports.
Answer: D,E

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NO.8 What is the best way to manage 15 VMware hosts and 12 Hyper-V hosts to be able to present
Virtual Volumes (VVols) quickly?
A. Volume sets
B. Provisioned sets
C. Host groups
D. Group sets
Answer: B

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NO.9 After upgrading VMware environment to the latest version, you want to take advantage of the
VAAI integration that avoids locking an entire LUN during VMFS metadata update. Which VAAI
primitive provides this feature?
A. ATS
B. Write_Same
C. UNMAP
D. VM STUN
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which resource should be used when installing an additional controller node to an HP 3PAR
Storage System?
A. HP 3PAR Storage System User and Administration Guide
B. HP 3PAR Storage System Controller Node Upgrade Poster
C. HP 3PAR Storage System Service and Maintenance Guide
D. HP 3PAR Storage System Upgrade Guide
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP0-S35
Exam Name: HP (Implementing HP BladeSystem Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 207 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 In case of failure, which HP BladeSystem c7000 component is mandatory Customer-Self-Repair
(CSR) and must be replaced by the customer?
A. KVM Module
B. Media Board
C. Optical Drive
D. Onboard Admin Link Module
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is the maximum number of hard drives that can be installed in a D2200sb Storage Blade?
A. 6
B. 10
C. 12
D. 24
Answer: C

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NO.3 What describes a single cold-aisle containment for rack placement in a data center?
A. Racks face back to front
B. Racks face front to back
C. Racks face back to back
D. Racks face front to front
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which benefit does an SSD drive offer over an SAS hard drive?
A. Higher access time and lower latency
B. Higher access time and higher latency
C. Lower access time and higher latency
D. Lower access time and lower latency
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which features were added to the Hyper V role in Windows Server 2008 R2 (Select two)
A. Failover clustering
B. Support for up to 192 running virtual machines
C. Second-Level Address Translation
D. Virtual machine snapshots
E. Support for 24 logical processors
Answer: C,D

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Exam Code: HP2-K32
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP SMB Storage Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Your SMB customer has spare server capacity and wants to implement shared storage for a
virtual environment. Which product would you recommend?
A. HP MSA 2000
B. HP StoreVirtual 4000
C. HP StoreVirtual VSA
D. HP 3PARStoreServ7000
Answer: C

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NO.2 How does using HP StoreOnce backup improve data protection reliability?
A. by eliminating manual processes
B. by using multiple disk drives as a store
C. by performing backups during non-business hours
D. by increasing the speed of the data transfer
Answer: A

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NO.3 How does utilizing HP StoreOnce for backup enable the use of low bandwidth links?
A. only the files that have changed need to be transferred
B. only the data blocks that have changed are transferred
C. backups do not need to be performed so frequently
D. backups are performed during non-business hours
Answer: B

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NO.4 How does Exchange 2010/ 2013 enable the use of virtualized environments?
A. It allows comprehensive e-discovery against all emails stored in the Exchange archives.
B. It provides automated deduplication to reduce the size of stored files.
C. It enables IT to reuse unallocated disk space and host all mailboxes on local servers.
D. It places less demands on storage, thus enabling the use of SAN storage architectures.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Your midmarket customer wants to develop a private cloud solution. Which HP Storage
product will be best suited to that requirement?
A. HP StoreVirtual VSA
B. HP StoreVirtual 4500
C. HP 3PARStoreServ7000
D. HP StoreOnce
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which requirements would prevent you from offering the HP 3PAR StoreServ product to a
customer?
A. The customer needs to have thin provisioning.
B. The customer has a VMware vSphere environment.
C. The customer has a need for BC/DR capability.
D. The customer specifically requires VMware vMSC cluster support.
Answer: C

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NO.7 HP StoreEasy is Efficient and Highly Available and provides many other features. Which
additional feature is regarded as key for your customers?
A. Easy Integration
B. Simple Management
C. Security
D. Cost Effective Performance
Answer: C

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NO.8 What is the major difference between block based and file based data?
A. File based data is typically unstructured.
B. File based data is typically found in a database.
C. Block based data is typically stored on a network-attached appliance.
D. Block based data is typically generated by rich media applications.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP2-N43
Exam Name: HP (HP Performance Center v.11.x Software)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 After the load test is run, where is all the data collected and processed?
A. DB server
B. file server
C. host server
D. analysis processor
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which kind of user is enabled to access the Site Administration?
A. Only a user defined as Site Administrator
B. Only the administrator user defined during the installation phase
C. All the users defined in the Site Administration module, despite the given rights
D. A user with Performance Center User Site and Lab Management Site access rights
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which action can you perform from the Load Test Run page?
A. Identify the location for the load test results.
B. View online monitor graphs.
C. Establish the correct ramp-up rate for each Vuser group.
D. Enable diagnostics for a limited percentage of running Vusers.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Topologies allow you to perform which action?
A. Extrapolate results from a QA environment to production.
B. Configure monitors using best-practice monitor templates.
C. Create new SiteScope templates.
D. Modify run-time settings of VuGen scripts
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which step occurs during the installation and configuration of the Performance Center Server?
A. Creation of IUSR_METRO user
B. Installation of Tuning Packages
C. Installation of MI Listener
D. Installation of Performance Center Agent Service
Answer: A

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Reference:http://hpsws.lithium.com/hpsws/attachments/hpsws/QC_SUP/ 508 /1 /(page 27, third
bullet)

NO.6 What is an example of a service level agreement (SLA) defined in the transaction volume
metrics?
A. Expected database thread count
B. Server operating system patch levels
C. Maximum web server memory usage
D. peak hour transaction count
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which steps are required to set the license key in Performance Center? (Select two.)
A. Add License Key.
B. Update License Host location.
C. Log in to the Lab Management.
D. Log in to the Performance Center Server.
E. Log in to the Performance Center Host.
Answer: A,C

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Reference:http://hpsws.lithium.com/hpsws/attachments/hpsws/QC_SUP/ 508 /1 /(page 61)

NO.8 Where is a Monitor Over Firewall installed?
A. On a dedicated machine, to monitor servers located over a firewall
B. On a dedicated machine, as a router between Controller and PC Agent
C. On the server machine to be monitored, in order to tunnel packets across the interposing firewall
D. On the Controller machine, in order to reach monitored servers located over a firewall
Answer: A

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Reference:http://hpsws.lithium.com/hpsws/attachments/hpsws/QC_SUP/ 508 /1 /(page 181, second
bulleted point on the page)

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Exam Code: HP2-K34
Exam Name: HP (Supporting and Servicing HP 3PAR StoreServ Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 55 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which HP resource can be used to obtain the latest information on operating system support
in an
HP 3PAR Storage System environment?
A. HP Single Point of Connectivity Knowledge
B. HP 3PAR Storage System Information Library
C. HP Product Bulletin
D. HP Active Answers
Answer: A

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Reference:http://h18000.www1.hp.com/products/quickspecs/14433_na/14433_na.pdf(page 3, see
the text in blue)

NO.2 Which situation prevents you from using SmartStart to install an HP 3PAR StoreServ 7000
system at a customer site?
A. DHCP is not running in the customer environment
B. The customer will not allow remote access of the Service Processor
C. The controller nodes and the service processor are connected to the same network.
D. All the customer servers are running Windows 2008 R2.
Answer: D

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NO.3 As a consultant, you are configuring Peer Motion during an initial setup of the HP 3PAR
StoreServ systems. What must you consider to ensure the correct configuration of a Peer Motion
environment?
A. Executing the Peer Motion Manager script requires Browse user-rights for the accounts used to
log in to the source array and Super user-rights for the destination array.
B. Two FC switches are required; only fabric connections on initiator ports are supported, and the
host and source system must use the same IP protocol version.
C. The Peer Motion Manager script executes in a command window of Microsoft Windows running
on a Peer Motion Manager Server.
D. The WWN of the VLUNs imported to the new array will become the S/N of the legacy array.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which zoning rule must be followed to implement Remote Copy over Fibre Channel?
A. Every FC port used for Remote Copy should be zoned with the hosts whose LUNs are replicating.
B. All FC ports on odd nodes should be zoned with the FC ports on the even remote node.
C. A Remote Copy FC port should be zoned to only one other Remote Copy FC port on another
system.
D. All Remote Copy FC ports in a storage server should be placed in the same zone.
Answer: D

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NO.5 When using notification settings in Service Tools and Technical Support (STaTS). Which task
can you perform with Symptom?
A. Disable a specific notification
B. Enable a specific notification
C. Create a notification record.
D. Manage a set of notifications.
Answer: C

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Reference:http://bizsupport2.austin.hp.com/bc/docs/support/SupportManual/c03606505 /c036065
0 5.pdf(page 11)

NO.6 You are running the SmartStart Installation procedure to install an HP StoreServ 7400 Storage
System. Which users, created during the installation process, will have access to this storage system?
(Select two.)
A. 3paradm
B. 3parcust
C. 3parAO
D. 3parSP
E. 3PARrm
Answer: A,B

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Reference:http://bizsupport2.austin.hp.com/bc/docs/support/SupportManual/c03606526 /c036065
2 6.pdf(search for 3paradm and 3parcust)

NO.7 Which statement is correct about using the Guided Maintenance (GM) scripts on an HP 3PAR
StoreServ system?
A. The GM scripts have to be run on a 3PARsvc to replace the drive chassis midplane.
B. The Service Processor and node clock battery cannot be removed and replaced by using the GM
scripts.
C. The GM scripts have to be run on a 3PARsvc to replace the Service Processor.
D. The Controller Node and drive cage cannot be removed and replaced by using the GM scripts.
Answer: D

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NO.8 You are discussing solutions with a customer who wants to use Peer Motion on the HP 3PAR
StoreServ 7400. The customer inquires about the specific requirements and limitations of this
solution. What should you tell them to consider?
A. A maximum of 150 Peer Motion migration tasks can be created by PMM, but only nine of them
run in parallel; the task moves region by region.
B. The destination array requires two free FC ports for Peer Motion: one port in peer mode to
connect to the source array and one to connect to the host that owns the VLUNs that will be
migrated.
C. Volumes in a 3PAR domain on the source array will be placed in the same domain on the
destination array
D. Peer Motion acts as a host-based volume-mirroring solution and requires a license installed on
the source and on the destination array.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP2-B102
Exam Name: HP (HP Imaging and Printing Sales Fundamentals Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 63 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which question is a typical cross-selling phrase?
A. Would you like to add an HP Care Pack to your HP MFP?
B. Would you benefit from increasing the number of MFPs in your fleet?
C. Would you benefit from a duplex model?
D. Would you benefit from a single-function device instead of an MFP?
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is NOT addressed in the HP Value Proposition?
A. simplicity
B. assessment
C. real world performance
D. reliability
Answer: B

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7. What is the purpose of up-selling?
A. to sell additional, third-party solutions
B. to sell accessories
C. to sell higher value products by series, family, or category
D. to sell on-site services
Answer: C

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8. Your client is concerned about replacing a personal printer that is used to print confidential
information with an HP MFP that is available to other employees. Which feature can address this
customer's concernsabout security?
A. proof and print
B. individual mailboxes in the output tray
C. hard disk storage
D. private job
Answer: D

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9. Why is understanding the meaning of color important?
A. to select colors similar to a competitor's colors
B. to avoid sending the wrong message to your customers
C. to select colors that are easily available in the print market
D. to pick the colors that best match the user's personality
Answer: C

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10. What is the goal when optimizing an imaging and printing fleet?
A. centralization of printing on a few devices
B. replacement of single-function printers with multifunction devices
C. replacement of all ink devices with laser devices
D. a balance between cost and productivity
Answer: D

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11. What is an imaging and printing industry trend?
A. seeking information on the internet
B. using templates to create a business brand
C. creating paperless offices
D. converging of multiple functions into one device
Answer: D

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12. HP ink cartridges are recycled by first shredding the plastic cartridge bodies What happens to
the shredded material?
A. It is sold for use in shipping containers, auto parts, and carpet fibers.
B. It is used to make new print cartridges.
C. It is cleaned, compressed, and disposed of in the land fill.
D. It is used to make HP recycled paper, which is exclusively used on HP campuses worldwide.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which statement is true about initial contacts between a customer and a business?
A. Most initial contacts result in a purchase.
B. Most initial contacts are face to face
C. Most initial contacts occur through documents.
D. Most initial contacts occur during the day.
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is the advantage of HP Care Packs?
A. They are included in the standard product warranty,
B. They include free upgrades to HP devices.
C. They are easy to buy, easy to use, and flexible.
D. They can be purchased for third-party products.
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is an advantage of a multifunction printer?
A. Once it has reached its monthly print volume, it automatically turns off to limit excess copy
charges to the client.
B. It can print faster than a single function printer can.
C. It uses fewer supplies than a single function printer does.
D. It takes up less floor space than individual devices for faxing, scanning, printing, and copying.
Answer: D

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NO.6 A client who purchases new technologies upon the recommendation of their colleagues is part
of which group?
A. Laggard
B. Early adopters
C. Late majority
D. Early majority
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP2-N35
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP IT Service Management Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 45 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 What percentage of asset cost is procurement, and what percentage is operational?
A. 4% is procurement, and 96% is operational.
B. 60% is procurement, and 40% is operational.
C. 96% is procurement, and 4% is operational.
D. 40% is procurement, and 60% is operational.
Answer: A

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Reference:http://www.slideshare.net/hpsoftwaresolutions/how-it-asset-management-fits-withinblu
e-cross-blue-shield-of-floridas-service-asset-configuration-management-initiative(slide 8)
6. Which capabilities does the HP Service Manager offering provide to optimized the high cost of
service desk support? (Select two.)
A. Reduce the high volume of service desk interactions
B. Allows for the automation of manual help desk processes
C. Allows storage provisioning
D. Client OS migrations in both physical and virtual environments
E. Server installation for both physical and virtual environments
Answer: A,B

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7. Which question best summarizes the challenge faced by those who deliver service
management to an organization?
A. When is the appropriate time to test a virtual application?
B. How soon after discovery of delta data does a DDM-I database need a refresh?
C. Which KPIs need to be pushed down to the help desk staff after a virtual machine reload?
D. How do you optimize ITSM investments and the value delivered to the business?
Answer: C

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8. The "number and percentage of emergency changes" and "number and percentage of
unplanned changes detected" are examples of which metric?
A. Metrics are collected by the BSM suite and federated into the CCRM solution database(s)
B. KPIs that are collected by the CCRM solution
C. Capabilities of the BSA suite of products
D. Capabilities of storage automation solutions
Answer: B

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Reference:http://h41112.www4.hp.com/events/software-universe-2012 /pdf/SWU-Day-2-Improving
the-Quality-of-Service-and-Reduce-Risk.pdf

NO.2 According to research, what percentage of incidents in the result of improper change?
A. 15%
B. 44%
C. 80%
D. 98%
Answer: C

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NO.3 According to HP , which market challenges are faced by businesses as far as ITSM is concerned?
(Select two.)
A. Desktop installations
B. Server automation visibility
C. Cost-effective service delivery
D. Application performance maintenance
E. Getting the most from assets
Answer: C,D

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NO.4 Which challenge is faced by organizations dealing with asset management?
A. Individuals and organizations seek to create tools where each user can manually enter
configuration and asset data into a master database.
B. Individuals seek to patch virtual systems with KPI patches and report them back to the system.
C. Organizations seek to push KPI configuration files to the lowest levels in the organization, seeking
to bring transparency to the configurations of all virtual devices.
D. Individuals dealing with asset management seek to lower cost and demonstrate value to the
business.
Answer: D

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NO.5 According to HP , what is a market challenge faced by ITSM businesses?
A. Increase business and IT complexity
B. Application quality
C. The automated discovery of desktops
D. Automation of server (Server Automation)
Answer: A

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Reference:http://blogs.forrester.com/stephen_mann/12-12-24the_top_10_it_service_management
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Exam Code: HP5-T01D
Exam Name: HP (Delta - Supporting HP Industry Standard Server Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 30 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which button should you press to enter the RBSU during POST?
A. F8
B. F9
C. F11
D. F12
Answer: B

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Reference:http://h20000.www2.hp.com/bizsupport/TechSupport/Document.jsp?objectID=c032559
24&prodSeriesId=5177953(See Using RBSU)

NO.2 Where can you verify the status of an external DVD-ROM drive in a c7000 enclosure?
A. Active Health Log
B. Integrated Management Log
C. Virtual SAS Manager
D. Insight Display
Answer: D

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NO.3 You replaced a Smart Array P812 in a ProLiant DL380 G7 storage server. What should you do
next?
A. Check the FBWC charge.
B. Replace the cache module.
C. Install the BBWC battery.
D. Verify that the firmware level is current.
Answer: D

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NO.4 What should be installed on a ProLiant Gen8 server to display operating system information
within the iLO 4 GUI?
A. HP Management Agents
B. System Management Home Page
C. Agentless Management Service
D. ProLiant Support Pack
Answer: C

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Reference:http://h20000.www2.hp.com/bc/docs/support/SupportManual/c03488111 /c03488111.p
d f

NO.5 Which steps should you perform to save a Virtual Connect configuration?
A. enclosure setting, configuration scripts, show config, save
B. enclosure setting, configuration scripts, inventory
C. from CLI: show all > cfg,txt
D. VCM, Tools, Backup/Restore Domain Configuration
Answer: A

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NO.6 Why should you use an electrostatic discharge (ESD) wrist strap when replacing parts such as
memory DIMMs?
A. It prevents the part from being damaged by static electricity.
B. It incorporates high resistance and dissipates electrical charges into the ozone.
C. A 48 V DC PSU will contribute to higher static electricity.
D. A current of more than 75 mA can kill someone.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP2-E59
Exam Name: HP (Introduction to Selling Servers, Storage, Networking and Services)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Why does HP use the term polymorphic storage to describe HP 3PAR StoreServ storage?
A. Because it is future proof in that it exists in several forms and can grow with freedom in any
direction
B. Because it includes patented variable chunking with intelligent container matching for faster
backups
C. Because it can achieve twice the VM density in physical VMware vSphere environments
D. Because it reduces storage capacity by up to 50% thus increasing free disk capacity, while
decreasing service and support costs
Answer: A

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Reference:http://www.webprojektserver.de/sites/Borgware/fileadmin/user_upload/pdfs/ 04_Decem
ber_3_Launch_Announcement_Flyer.pdf.pdf

NO.2 Which HP series of network switches is unmanaged?
A. HP 1400-series switches
B. HP 1800-series switches
C. HP 1900-senes switches
D. HP 2500-series switches
Answer: A

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Reference:http://h17007.www1.hp.com/us/en/networking/products/switches/HP_1410_Switch_Se
r ies/index.aspx#tab=TAB1

NO.3 Your healthcare customer wants to add a separate location for a family practice. They want
the new location to have seamless integration into the main location network and support a
maximum of five users. Which cost-effective HP networking solution should you recommend?
A. HP FlexManagement with an HP OfficeConnect switch
B. HP FlexFabric with an HP 2920 series switch
C. HP FlexFabric with an HP M220 access point
D. HP FlexBranch with an HP MSR930-series router
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the difference between a network switch and a network router?
A. A network switch connects devices for communication via Ethernet; a network router connects
networks to enable communication between them.
B. A network switch enables device connections over wireless networks; a network router enables
network communications over wireless networks.
C. A network switch enables multiple devices to share the same monitors; a network router enables
devices to use multiple monitors.
D. A network switch connects networks to enable communication; a network router connects
devices for communication over Ethernet.
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is the difference between computer memory and computer storage?
A. Computer memory is the storage hierarchy; computer storage is a subset of the computer
memory.
B. Computer memory handles data from input devices; computer storage handles data from output
devices.
C. Computer memory is the fast, volatile data-retention technologies; computer storage is the
slower, permanent data-retention technologies.
D. Computer memory includes the arithmetic unit of the CPU; computer storage includes the
control unit of the CPU.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which benefit does an HP Care Pack offer that the HP standard product warranty does not?
A. Firmware and software upgrades
B. Replacement of defective parts
C. Support outside of standard business hours
D. Troubleshooting support
Answer: D

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Reference:http://h71016.www7.hp.com/html/helpmechoose/carepacks/care_packs_psg.asp

NO.7 Which statement about types of care available from HP Technology Services is true?
A. HP Foundation care offers only hardware services while HP Core Services care offers hardware
and software services.
B. HP Reactive care offers only the standard warranty and on site services while HP Core Services
care offers full solution support
C. HP Foundation care offers only reactive support while HP Proactive care offers reactive support
and proactive support.
D. HP BreakFix care offers only hardware repairs while HP Core Services care offers software and
hardware support.
Answer: C

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Reference:http://h20195.www2.hp.com/v2 /GetPDF.aspx%2F4AA4-7294ENW.pdf

NO.8 What does ease of integration mean as one of the important IT trends for small and medium
business?
A. Full integration between security, ease of use, and scalability in computing
B. Integration toward the right computing environment to meet future requirements
C. Integration toward simplified growth with cost controls
D. A totally integrated solution across server, storage, and network infrastructures
Answer: D

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