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Exam Code: CAT-221
Exam Name: CA (CA Clarity PPM v13.x Professional Certification Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 The creation of a grid portlet requires a data provider. Data providers can be: (Choose three)
A. Filters
B. Events
C. Objects
D. Systems
E. NSQL queries
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.2 To access the server page that lists the XML Open Gateway (XOG) invoke action web services,
you specify the following URL:
http://<servername:port>/niku/wsdl/InvokeAction
Which types of invoke action web services are listed here? (Choose three)
A. Process
B. Flush cache
C. Aggregate data
D. Productivity data
E. Synchronize external links
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.3 Which feature characterizes NSQL multi-dimensional queries?
A. The data provider is always an object.
B. The related portlets have a Y-axis subpage.
C. They enable more complex charts such as Donut charts.
D. They always include change_key and merge_key attributes.
Answer: B

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6. You need to export a single portlet that is contained within a dashboard. Which limitations do
you
need to consider? (Choose three)
A. The export will always be Fit to Page.
B. The Export to PDF option must be selected.
C. The Export to PowerPoint option will only permit 30 records.
D. The dashboard template must be Application Page Template.
E. The dashboard type must be Page with Tabs or Page without Tabs.
Answer: A,D,E

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7. The CA Clarity PPM bundle includes CA Business Intelligence (CABI) software. Which features
characterize CABI? (Choose three)
A. Support for cached content
B. Component-based content development
C. A built-in INSolve Functional Intelligence QuickStart Pack
D. An InfoView Business Relationship Manager (BRM) module for complex report design
E. A built-in paging mechanism to help ensure the scalable delivery of large volumes of content
Answer: A,B,E

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8. Before saving a Generic Execution Language (GEL) script in a process, it is recommended that
you:
A. Validate the GEL script
B. Remove all FTP Library tags
C. Delete all namespace declarations
D. Test the GEL script in a duplicate process
Answer: D

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9. Which technology is Generic Execution Language (GEL) based on?
A. Oracle Java
B. CA Clarity PPM
C. Apache Jakarta Jelly
D. SAP Business Objects
Answer: C

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10. Out of the box, which object actions can you create in CA Clarity PPM v13? (Choose three)
A. Run a stock report
B. Link to Google search
C. Delete an active service
D. Run the Delete Investments job
E. Move tasks across or between projects
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.4 CA Clarity PPM v13 portlets
A. Can use an object, a system, or a query as a data provider.
B. Use multiple dimensions if created using an object data provider.
C. Include restricted portlets, such as the Action Item portlet, which only administrators can
change.
D. Include new interactive functionality, which uses Microsoft Silverlight to build complex
visualizations.
Answer: A

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NO.5 In the CA Clarity PPM Process Engines event flow, what is the function of the Wakeup Signal?
A. Displays detailed Process Engines instance information
B. Triggers the Background Engine as soon an event is fired
C. Keeps track of all the executing process, controls the event flow, and helps manage the
Workflow Execution
D. Interacts with the CA Clarity PPM database on a consistent basis to proceed with the workflow
steps or instructions
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 9L0-964
Exam Name: Apple (Final Cut Pro 6 Level 1 Exam)
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Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which clip would be adjusted if you dragged left?(Select the best answer.)
A. Clip in Track V1
B. Clip in Track V2
C. Clip in Track V3
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is a standard audio CD's sample rate?(Select the best answer.)
A. 24 kHz
B. 32 kHz
C. 44.1 kHz
D. 48 kHz
Answer: C

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NO.3 You want to output an HDV sequence to HDV tape. Which output option should you select?(Select the
best answer.)
A. Edit to Tape
B. Print to Video
C. QuickTime Movie
D. QuickTime Conversion
Answer: B

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NO.4 What does the visual indicator (overlay) at the bottom-left of the Canvas represent?(Select the best
answer.)
A. The first frame of an edited clip in the Timeline.
B. The last frame of an edited clip in the Timeline.
C. End of a Sequence
Answer: A

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NO.5 The above icon may represent ________.(Select all that apply.)
A. an offline clip
B. a clip whose media file you recently renamed in the Finder
C. a clip whose media file you recently relocated in the Finder
D. a clip that does not contain linked audio
E. a clip that has been logged but not captured
Answer: ABCE

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NO.6 Where are Voice Over tool recordings saved?(Select the best answer.)
A. Audio Renders
B. Autosave Vault
C. Capture Scratch
D. Render Files
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is the result of applying the above to an audio clip?(Select the best answer.)
A. The lowest dB reading for the clip will be -6 dB in the Audio Meters.
B. The average dB reading for the clip will be -6 dB in the Audio Meters.
C. The peak dB reading for the clip will be -6 dB in the Audio Meters.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which tool will let you perform the edit shown above with a single mouse drag?(Select the best
answer.)
A. Ripple Tool
B. Roll Tool
C. Slide Tool
D. Slip Tool
Answer: B

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NO.9 What are the four modifier keys?(Select the FOUR best answers.)
A. Tab
B. Shift
C. Command
D. Option
E. Control
Answer: BCDE

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NO.10 Which THREE filters create a composite effect?(Select the THREE best answers.)
A. Mask Shape
B. Chroma Keyer
C. Insect Eye
D. Gaussian Blur
E. Eight-Point Garbage Matte
Answer: ABE

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NO.11 Which Video Filters category contains the Broadcast Safe filter?(Select the best answer.)
A. Channel
B. Color Correction
C. Image Control
D. QuickTime
E. Video
Answer: B

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NO.12 What menu command lets you ingest files, such as graphics, from your hard drive?(Select the best
answer.)
A. Import
B. Export
C. Log and Capture
D. Send To
Answer: A

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NO.13 What are ways that you can launch Final Cut Pro?(Select all that apply.)
A. Double-click the Final Cut Pro icon in the Applications folder.
B. Single-click the Final Cut Pro icon in the Dock.
C. Double-click a Final Cut Pro project file.
Answer: ABC

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NO.14 What does the visual indicator (overlay) along the left side of the Viewer represent?(Select the best
answer.)
A. The first frame of a clip's media.
B. The last frame of a clip's media.
C. Start of a Sequence
D. End of a Sequence
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which tab displays a clip's Opacity parameter?(Select the best answer.)
A. Video
B. Controls
C. Filters
D. Motion
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 9L0-607
Exam Name: Apple (System Administration Using Mac)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 86 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 You are configuring Mac OS X Server to authorize users stored on an Active Directory server.
You need to ________ and ________. (Choose TWO.)
A.generate and install keytabs
B.configure the Active Directory plug-in
C.use slurpd to import Active Directory users to your local LDAP database
D.configure Open Directory to emulate Active Directory properties in the LDAPv3 database
E.use Workgroup Manager to include properties required by Open Directory in the Active Directory
database
Correct:A B

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NO.2 Which are valid SMTP commands that you might use in a Telnet session when testing your mail
server? (Choose all that apply.)
A.mail from:
B.mail to:
C.rcpt from:
D.rcpt to:
E.relay from:
F.relay to:
Correct:A D

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NO.3 Server Monitor does NOT provide status information for which Xserve component?
A.blower
B.hard drive
C.power supply
D.fibre channel link
Correct:D

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NO.4 On Mac OS X Server 10.3, which feature in amd represents an improvement over automount?
A.graphical user interface
B.support of AFP and NFS
C.integration with directory services
D.support of industry-standard mount maps
Correct:D

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button and study the network diagram, then answer the question below. You
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if the server at 10.1.1.1 is restarted? (Choose TWO.)
A.Enable IP forwarding with sysctl.
B.Add a static route for network 10.1.0/24.
C.Add a static route for network 10.1.1/24.
D.Enable IP forwarding from Server Admin.
E.Set the IPFORWARDING flag in /etc/hostconfig to -YES-.
Correct:A E

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Exam Code: 9L0-007
Exam Name: Apple (Macintosh Service Certification Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 96 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 What is the function of the SMC in an Intel Mac?
A. The SMC controls all aspects of power flow.
B. The SMC controls the speed of the hard drive.
C. The SMC manages the amount of virtual memory used.
D. The SMC manages all communication with attached peripherals.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which section of any Apple service manual is the BEST place to look for instructions for replacing an
internal component?
A. Views
B. Basics
C. Take Apart
D. Troubleshooting
Answer: C

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NO.3 You require additional information about a specific problem with a customer's Mac. Which one of the
following resources is the Apple-recommended choice for researching the problem?
A. Downloads
B. Discussions
C. User's manual
D. Knowledge Base
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which THREE of the following symptoms would most likely be resolved by performing an SMC reset
as a first step? SELECT THREE
A. Computer does not turn on
B. Cursor is unresponsive in Finder
C. Network / Internet connectivity issues
D. USB and/or FireWire port(s) do not function
E. Computer does not sleep / wake from sleep
Answer: ADE

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NO.5 Which TWO details are derived from entering an Apple product's serial number into the Apple Support
Web page? SELECT TWO
A. Mac OS version
B. Warranty status
C. AppleCare name
D. Installed memory
E. Number of USB ports
Answer: BC

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NO.6 You are about to replace a MacBook Air logic board. Which of the following is the most important step
you should take immediately after removing the bottom case?
A. Remove the thermal module.
B. Disconnect the main battery.
C. Remove the hard drive.
D. Remove the processor.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Examine the exhibit. What is this message?
A. Kernel Panic
B. Software Update
C. Firmware Update
D. Power-On Self-Test
Answer: A

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NO.8 To ensure proper fan and temperature control in the Power Mac G5, you must run the thermal
calibration routine found on the ______ disc whenever you replace a processor or logic board with a new
processor or logic board.
A. Apple Service Diagnostic
B. Apple Hardware Test
C. Fan Control Installer
D. Mac OS X Installer
Answer: A

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NO.9 What precautions should be taken if a discharged CRT must remain exposed for any length of time?
A. You should reset the Power Manager Unit on the logic board.
B. You should perform a full set of video adjustments on the CRT.
C. You should remove the CRT from the computer or display assembly.
D. You should establish an ongoing lead between the CRT anode and ground.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following PowerBook G4 models does NOT support hot-swapping the main battery?
A. PowerBook G4 (12-inch)
B. PowerBook G4 (15-inch)
C. PowerBook G4 (17-inch)
Answer: A

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NO.11 Examine the exhibit. What type of port does the number 1 identify?
A. USB
B. FireWire
C. Sound In
D. MagSafe
E. Sound Out
F. ExpressCard
Answer: D

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NO.12 On a MacBook Pro, Safe Sleep ensures that _____.
A. any open IP ports from services are closed before putting the machine to sleep
B. the machine is locked with a configured password after a specified amount of time
C. data stored in main memory will not be lost should the system shut down due to power loss while the
machine is asleep
D. the user is prompted to save documents in any open applications before machine is put to sleep using
the Sleep command from the Apple menu
Answer: C

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NO.13 What does Apple recommend you do before replacing or installing any internal parts in an Xserve?
A. Remove all drive modules from the Xserve.
B. Remove the Xserve from its rack.
C. Press the System Identifier button.
D. Unlock all drive module bays.
Answer: B

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NO.14 A MacBook sometimes becomes unresponsive and the cursor freezes on the display when running an
application. You have verified the symptom, and have already attempted to force the application to quit,
but the computer remains unresponsive. What should you try next?
A. Disconnect all power sources for several minutes to reset the SMC.
B. Hold the eject button down for several seconds to reset the application.
C. Hold the trackpad button down for several seconds to regain cursor control.
D. Press the power button for several seconds to try shutting the computer down.
Answer: D

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NO.15 A MacBook Pro powers on with no image on the built-in display. You connect an external display and
restart the MacBook Pro, yet you still see no image on either display. Which of the following is most likely
the cause of this symptom?
A. Dead battery
B. Not enough RAM
C. Faulty optical drive
D. RAM not completely seated
Answer: D

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NO.16 A customers iBook G4 forgets the time and date when the main battery is completely drained and
there is no AC adapter connected for several hours. Is this behavior normal?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: A

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NO.17 According to Apple service manuals, what steps should you take before performing any take-apart
steps when replacing a part in any Apple product?
A. Disconnect and reconnect all internal cables.
B. Lay the product on its side so it will not fall over.
C. Discharge the CRT and establish an ongoing ground.
D. Gather all necessary tools and perform all preliminary steps.
E. Order all available service parts for the appropriate configuration of the product.
Answer: D

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NO.18 The LED on a MacBook MagSafe power adapter doesn't illuminate at all when it's plugged into the
MacBook and you know the adapter is connected to a known good power source. What is most likely the
cause of this symptom?
A. The MacBook has a faulty main battery.
B. The MagSafe adapter needs to be reset first.
C. The MacBook requires an SMC firmware update.
D. A MagSafe adapter connector pin is stuck down.
Answer: D

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NO.19 You are troubleshooting an eMac that has no image on its built-in display. You have already checked
user controls and reset PRAM, but the issue persists. When you connect an external display to the
eMac's VGA output port and restart the eMac, you see a proper image on the external display. Which of
the following service modules would most likely be the cause of these symptoms?
A. Display Analog Assembly
B. Power Supply Assembly
C. Logic Board
D. Hard drive
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which of the following most accurately describes what happens during Safe Sleep activation in Mac
portables?
A. The contents of RAM are written to NVRAM before sleep.
B. The contents of the hard disk are encrypted before sleep.
C. The contents of RAM are written to hard disk before sleep.
D. The contents of the hard disk are read into RAM before sleep.
Answer: C

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Total Q&A: 94 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which TWO details are derived from entering an Apple product's serial number into the Online Service
Assistant section of the Apple Support web page? SELECT TWO
A. Mac OS version
B. Warranty status
C. AppleCare name
D. Installed memory
E. Number of USB ports
Answer: B C

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NO.2 According to Apple Technician Guides, what should be completed before performing any take-apart
steps when replacing a part in any Apple product?
A. Disconnect and reconnect all internal cables.
B. Lay the product on its side so it will not fall over.
C. Discharge the CRT and establish an ongoing ground.
D. Gather all necessary tools and perform all preliminary steps.
E. Order all available service parts for the appropriate configuration of the product.
Answer: D

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NO.3 You require additional information about a specific problem with a customer's Mac. Which one of the
following resources is the Apple-recommended choice for researching the problem?
A. Downloads
B. Discussions
C. User's manual
D. Apple support articles
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following is a valid precaution you should take when you begin working inside a MacBook
Pro (13-inch, Mid 2010)?
A. Reset the SMC.
B. Remove the hard drive.
C. Disconnect the optical drive.
D. Disconnect the main battery.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following measurements is an example of an appropriate use of a multimeter when
troubleshooting a Mac.?
A. Measure logic board battery voltage.
B. Measure high voltage going to a CRT.
C. Measure AC current going to an optical drive.
D. Measure digital signals on the main processor.
Answer: A

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NO.6 What component of a Mac mini (Early 2009) logic board requires use of an anti-static foam support to
avoid damage?
A. EMI clips
B. Video card
C. Large heat sink
D. Battery connector
Answer: A

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NO.7 A customer asks about RAM speed requirements to upgrade his Mac. To which Apple support site
resource should you refer this customer?
A. Downloads
B. Discussions
C. Specifications
D. Technician Guide
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which section of any Apple Technician Guide is the BEST place to look for instructions for replacing an
internal component?
A. Views
B. Basics
C. Take Apart
D. Troubleshooting
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which of the following is a valid precaution you should take while working inside an iMac (27-inch, Mid
2010) system that is plugged into AC power but has not yet been powered on?
A. Do not turn the unit upside-down.
B. Avoid putting your fingers near the fans.
C. Make sure you are NOT wearing a grounded ESD wrist strap.
D. Do not touch the processor heat sink because it could burn your fingers.
Answer: C

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NO.10 You are preparing to replace faulty RAM inside a Mac mini (Mid 2010). What should be used to open the
bottom cover?
A. Putty knife
B. Philips #00 screwdriver
C. Mac mini (Mid 2010) Logic Board Removal Tool
D. Your hands, no tools are required for this procedure
Answer: D

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NO.1 In Mac OS X v10.7, a user's Public folder contains a Drop Box folder. How do the default
permissions for the Drop Box folder permit users other than the owner to interact with the folder?
A. Other users can see the folder's contents, but they cannot add files.
B. Other users can see the folder's contents and can add files to the folder.
C. Other users can neither see the folder's contents nor add files to the folder.
D. Other users can add files to the folder, but they cannot see the folder's contents.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which application environment is NOT supported by Mac OS X v10.7?
A. BSD
B. X11
C. Java
D. Cocoa
E. Carbon
F. Classic
Answer: F

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NO.3 You want to share your Mac OS X computer's Internet connection with other computers over
Airport. Which two settings can you configure from the Internet Sharing pane in Sharing
Preferences? Choose two.
A. WEP encryption
B. Network interface
C. Client IP addresses
D. TCP/IP port filtering
E. Network Address Translation
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 Which information must you know about a corporate VPN server before configuring the VPN
software on a user's computer to access the corporate network?
A. If the corporate VPN server supports PPPoE
B. If the corporate VPN server supports DNSsec
C. If the corporate VPN server supports L2TP or PPTP
D. Which network protocols will be encrypted by the corporate VPN
Answer: C

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NO.5 What are the default permissions for the /Users/Shared/ folder in Mac OS X v10.7?
A. drwxrwxrwt 3 root wheel 272 Jul 9 20:08 Shared
B. drwxrwxrwx@ 3 root staff 272 Jul 9 20:08 Shared
C. drwxrwx--- 3 admin staff 272 Jul 9 20:08 Shared
D. drwxrwxrwt 3 admin wheel 272 Jul 9 20:08 Shared
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which statement presents a benefit of protected memory?
A. Applications that crash automatically save open files.
B. Data in memory used by running applications is encrypted.
C. Applications that crash have the data in memory saved to a new file.
D. Applications that crash do not adversely affect other running applications.
Answer: D

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NO.7 When you use the Finder to browse your network, your Mac OS X v10.7 client computer can
discover services that are using which protocols?
A. Bonjour, NetBIOS, and SLP
B. NetBIOS, AppleTalk, and SLP
C. Bonjour, AppleTalk, and SLP
D. Bonjour, NetBIOS, and AppleTalk
Answer: D

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NO.8 How does Boot Camp Assistant prepare a Mac OS X v10.7 computer for Windows installation?
A. It reformats the target hard disk as a FAT32 volume, then modifies the hard disk to act as a
Windows startup disk.
B. It does not modify the target hard disk, but creates a disk image at the root of the target hard
disk, and formats the disk image as a Windows volume.
C. It initializes the target hard disk with two partitions, and formats one partition as a Mac OS
Extended (Journaled) volume, and the other as a Windows volume.
D. It resizes an existing partition on the target hard disk as needed, then creates a new partition on
the hard disk, and formats the new partition as a Windows volume.
Answer: D

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NO.1 Cooling towers are a typical component of which heat rejection system?
A. Water cooled system
B. Glycol cooled system
C. Air cooled split system
D. Air cooled self-contained system
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is the highest cost UPS configuration?
A. System + system
B. Parallel redundant
C. Isolated redundant
D. Distributed redundant
Answer: A

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NO.3 Click the Exhibit button.
Which air distribution method is displayed in the exhibit?
A. Flooded supply, flooded return
B. Flooded supply, fully ducted return
C. Flooded supply, locally ducted return
D. Locally ducted supply, flooded return
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the purpose of grounding?
A. To protect against electric shock
B. To step down 208 V power to 120 V power
C. To maintain the voltage during neutral wire bonding
D. To provide a path for the Ground Fault Interrupt (GFI) circuit
Answer: A

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NO.5 What does GFCI mean?
A. Ground Fault Circuit Interrupter
B. General Facilities Cooling Index
C. Gaussian Filter Charge Indicator
D. Grounded Flaw Circuitry Installed
Answer: A

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NO.6 What are three power distribution components found in data centers? (Choose three.)
A. Ground loop
B. Branch circuit
C. Metered outlet strip
D. Power distribution unit (PDU)
E. Valve regulated lead acid (VRLA) battery
Answer: BCD

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NO.7 What is the unit of measurement of the electrical resistance of a circuit?
A. Volt
B. Amp
C. Ohm
D. Frequency
Answer: C

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NO.8 What is an example of a standard building management system (BMS) protocol?
A. IPV6
B. TCP/IP
C. MODBUS
D. 10/100 BASE-T
Answer: C

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NO.9 How do enclosures improve rack system cooling?
A. By improving natural air flow
B. By improving fire suppression
C. By allowing hot and cold air to mix together
D. By preventing hot and cold air from mixing together
Answer: D

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NO.10 What describes the number of times AC current is switched back and forth over a period of 1 second?
A. Voltage
B. Frequency
C. Amperage
D. Power factor
Answer: B

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NO.11 What does the CFD acronym stand for?
A. Certified Field Dichotomy
B. Circular Flow Determination
C. Computational Finite Deviation
D. Computational Fluid Dynamics
Answer: D

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NO.12 What would be a comprehensive strategy for protecting the most critical racks of a data center?
A. Key access to the critical racks
B. Video camera pointed directly at critical racks
C. Iris scanner at the entrance to the data center
D. Nested security perimeters with racks at the innermost level
Answer: D

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NO.13 What is the unit of measurement of the electrical current moving through a circuit?
A. Volt
B. Amp
C. Ohm
D. Frequency
Answer: B

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NO.14 What does the term "5-nines" availability mean?
A. 5 minutes of downtime per year
B. 9 minutes of downtime per year
C. 14 minutes of downtime per year
D. 45 minutes of downtime per year
Answer: A

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NO.15 What is required for the transfer of heat from one object to another?
A. A difference in airflow
B. A difference in volume
C. A difference in pressure
D. A difference in temperature
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which type of humidification system uses quartz lamps extended over an open pool of water to
release water vapor?
A. Infrared humidifier
B. Ultrasonic humidifier
C. Electromagnetic humidifier
D. Steam canister humidifier
Answer: A

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NO.17 Requiring frequent password changes can compromise security because _____.
A. Users tend to write down frequently changed passwords
B. It makes the password database an easier target for hackers
C. It makes it harder for legitimate users to access their own data
D. It burdens the IT help desk with requests for forgotten or expired passwords
Answer: A

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NO.18 What is the difference between an undervoltage and a sag?
A. A sag lasts less time than an undervoltage condition.
B. A sag has less of a voltage drop than an undervoltage condition.
C. A sag is due to downstream loads and undervoltage is due to the power source.
D. A sag occurs in low voltage distribution and undervoltage occurs in high voltage distribution.
Answer: A

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NO.19 The rear of an IT equipment rack is fitted with a duct that is connected to a drop ceiling plenum; the
plenum is connected by a duct to the perimeter CRAC unit. The CRAC unit discharges air into a raised
floor. The IT equipment rack is located above a hole in the raised floor which allows conditioned air to
enter the rack.
This is an example of which type of air distribution system?
A. Flooded supply, fully ducted return
B. Locally ducted supply, flooded return
C. Flooded supply, locally ducted return
D. Fully ducted supply, fully ducted return
Answer: D

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NO.20 What describes the ratio of watts to volt-amps?
A. Frequency
B. Power factor
C. Actual power
D. Apparent power
Answer: B

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NO.21 What is defined as the force of electricity moving through a circuit?
A. Volt
B. Amp
C. Ohm
D. Frequency
Answer: A

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NO.22 An infrared scan of cabling can detect what two problems? (Choose two.)
A. An overloaded circuit
B. A loose connection
C. Compatibility errors
D. Electrical interference
Answer: AB

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NO.23 What are three benefits of Inergen? (Choose three.)
A. It is non-conductive.
B. It has zero ozone depletion potential.
C. It has a low pressure delivery system.
D. It requires less storage tanks than Halon.
E. It is safe to discharge in an occupied area.
Answer: ABE

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NO.24 Which statement correctly defines direct current (DC)?
A. Only high voltage is used.
B. Electricity flows in one direction only.
C. The circuit does not have multiple paths.
D. The circuit is directly attached to the power source.
Answer: B

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NO.25 Click the Exhibit button.
Which air distribution method is displayed in this picture?
A. Flooded supply, fully ducted return
B. Flooded supply, locally ducted return
C. Locally ducted supply, flooded return
D. Locally ducted supply, flooded return
Answer: B

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NO.26 What is a component of the network-critical physical infrastructure (NCPI)?
A. Voice over IP
B. Fire protection
C. Office supplies
D. Desktop application software
Answer: B

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NO.27 What is a difference between Single-phase and three-phase power?
A. Single-phase power is flat but three-phase power is sinusoidal.
B. Single-phase power is dependent on power factor but three-phase power is not.
C. Single-phase power is limited to approximately 120 kW but three-phase power is unlimited.
D. Single-phase power is more costly for the power company to distribute than three-phase power.
Answer: D

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NO.28 Click the Exhibit button.
Which air distribution method is displayed in this picture?
A. Fully ducted supply, flooded return
B. Flooded supply, fully ducted return
C. Flooded supply, locally ducted return
D. Locally ducted supply, flooded return
Answer: A

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NO.29 What are three advantages of biometric access control? (Choose three.)
A. Cannot be lost
B. Inexpensive to deploy
C. Difficult to fool the sensor
D. Cannot be shared with others
E. Always correctly identifies the user
Answer: ACD

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NO.30 What is an advantage of choosing a four-post open frame rack over a two-post open frame rack?
A. Lower cost
B. Smaller footprint
C. Easier assembly
D. Increased strength
Answer: D

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NO.1 Which of the following contributes to VPLS implementation over MPLS?
A.Connecting bridging-capable provider edge routers with a full mesh of MPLS LSP (label switched path)
tunnels
B.Negotiating per-service VC labels using draft-Martini encapsulation
C.Replicating unknown and broadcast traffic in a service domain
D.Enabling MAC learning over tunnel and access ports
E.Using a separate forwarding information base (FIB) per VPLS service
F.All of the above
Answer: F

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NO.2 Which of the following statements relating to VPLS are false?
A.A VPLS is a multipoint Layer 2 service
B.A VPLS allows multiple customer sites to be connected in a single bridged domain
C.A VPLS on a single node requires a Service Distribution Path
D.With VPLS Service provider can reuse their IP/MPLS infrastructure to offer multiple services
E.The VPLS switches traffic based on MAC address associated to the appropriate SAP
Answer: C

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NO.3 Select the command from the list below that produced the following output.
A.oam svc-ping 20.20.20.20 service 10 local-sdp remote-sdp
B.oam sdp-ping 10 resp-sdp 10
C.oam svc-ping 20.20.20.20 service 10 local-sdp
D.oam svc-ping 10.10.10.10 service 10 local-sdp remote-sdp
E.oam svc-ping 10.10.10.10 service 10 local-sdp
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following functions must a PE router support when participating in a VPLS network?
Choose all that apply.
A.MAC learning
B.Packet replication
C.Proxy ARP
D.Packet forwarding
E.Flood all frames with an unknown destination MAC address to all PE routers associated with that VPLS
Answer: A B D E

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NO.5 Which SDP on R3 will MAC addresses be associated with for devices behind R2?
A.It depends if traffic is received via R4 or R1 from devices behind R2
B.The devices cannot communicate based on the configuration in the diagram so there will be no mac
address association
C.Devices behind R2 will be associated with the sdp between R3 and R1
D.Devices behind R2 will be associated with the sdp between R3 and R4
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following best describes the difference between VPWS and VPLS?
A.VPWS is a point-to-point service where CEs are presented with point- to-point virtual circuits whereas
VPLS is a bridged LAN service provided to a set of CEs that are members of a L2 VPN
B.Unlike VPLS, VPWS allows CEs that are member of the same service instance to communicate with
each other as if they are connected via a bridged LAN
C.Unlike VPWS, VPLS provides customers to view the network as an unshared overlay link or circuit
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following statements is false?
A.VPLS is a bridged LAN service
B.VPLS provides L2 VPN services to CEs
C.VPLS is a point-to-point service where CEs are presented with point- to-point virtual circuits
D.CEs that are members of the same VPLS service instance communicate with each other as if they are
connected
via a bridged LAN
Answer: C

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NO.8 True or False? Multiple VPLS services can be offered over the same set of LSP tunnels?
A.True
B.False
Answer: A

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NO.9 The behavior of VPLS can be best described by which of the following statements?
A.A frame should be sent only to the PE that connects to the target site of the frame whenever possible
B.A frame should be flooded as little as possible
C.Customer frames should be switched based on the destination MAC address
D.Only (a) and (b) are true
E.All of the above
Answer: E

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NO.10 Based on the following output what will the vc-id be of any mesh-sdp bound to this service?
A.9000
B.1514
C.1000
D.0
Answer: C

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NO.1 These are all the pirctures which this dumps will use. When you meet the questions, you can refer to
them by yourself.
A
B
C
D
E
F

NO.2 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
It is now permissible in most markets for brokers to be owned by banks and other principals. Where there
is shared management, or a shareholding or other investment in a broker by a counterparty:
A.The broker is not obligated to reveal the connection provided Chinese Walls are in place.
B.The broker is not obligated to reveal the connection in the professional market.
C.The broker should advise the other counterparty of the connection.
D.The matter is covered in the Model Code.
ANSWER: c

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NO.3 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
Voice-brokers in spot FX are remunerated with:
A.Commission paid by both parties at rates agreed beforehand
B.A fee paid by the seller
C.Bid/offer spread
D.A share of the bid/offer spread
ANSWER: a

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NO.4 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
You have done the following deals in spot USD/JPY:
Sold USD 5.0 million at 130.60
Bought USD 3.5 million at 130.20
Bought USD 2.0 million at 130.50
Sold USD 2.0 million at 130.55
What is your net position and average rate?
A.Short USD 1.5 million at 130.46
B.Long USD 1.5 million at 130.46
C.Short USD 1.5 million at 131.60
D.Long USD 1.5 million at 131.60
ANSWER: c

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NO.5 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
Prior to expiration, an in-the-money option has:
A.Intrinsic value but no time value
B.Time value but no intrinsic value
C.Both time value and intrinsic value
D.Neither time value nor intrinsic value
ANSWER: c

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NO.6 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
In the international market, a FRA in USD is usually settled with reference to:
A.BBA LIBOR
B.Fed funds
C.ISDA LIBOR
D.EURIBOR
ANSWER: a

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NO.7 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
Lending for 3 months and borrowing for 6 months creates a 3x6 forward-forward deposit. The cost of that
deposit is called:
A.Break-even rate
B.Implied forward rate
C.Forward-forward rate
D.All of the above
ANSWER: d

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NO.8 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
Taking collateral to hedge the credit risk on a counterparty means that you have:
A.Eliminated credit risk
B.Eliminated market risk
C.Taken a guarantee from the issuer of the collateral
D.Taken on market, legal and operational risks
ANSWER: d

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NO.9 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
Four banks provide you with quotes in CHF/SEK. Which is the best price for you to buy SEK?
A.5.5825
B.5.5820
C.5.5815
D.5.5830
ANSWER: d

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NO.10 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
The position delta of an in-the-money short put option is:
A.Between -0.5 and -1
B.-0.5
C.Between +0.5 and +1
D.+0.5
ANSWER: c

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NO.11 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
Covered interest arbitrage is possible when:
A.The low interest rate currency depreciates
B.There is a large swing in the spot rate
C.The values of the forward points and of the interest rate differential between two currencies diverge
D.The interest rate differential widens rather than narrows
ANSWER: c

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NO.12 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
Making interest rate swap transactions subject to agreement on documentation:
A.Is recommended where the complications of the transaction warrant the practice.
B.Is strictly forbidden.
C.Is considered bad practice.
D.Must have senior management approval.
ANSWER: c

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NO.13 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
If a counterparty's name is not acceptable to a lending bank, that bank:
A.Can revise the rate according to his credit position for the counterparty.
B.Should not revise the rate.
C.Can revise the rate but only with the consent of senior management.
D.Can revise the rate according to the credit rating of the counterparty
ANSWER: b

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NO.14 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
Which of the following is issued by auction?
A.Treasury bill
B.CD
C.BA
D.USCP
ANSWER: a

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NO.15 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
What are the secondary market proceeds of a CD with a face value of EUR 5 million and a coupon of 3%
that was issued at par for 182 days and is now trading at 3% but with only 7 days remaining to maturity?
A.EUR 4,997,085.03
B.EUR 5,000,000.00
C.EUR 5,071,086.45
D.EUR 5,072,874.16
ANSWER: d

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NO.16 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
In case of a default on a repo by the seller:
A.The buyer can liquidate the collateral
B.The buyer has to liquidate the collateral
C.The buyer cannot liquidate the collateral until the seller is declared insolvent
D.A court is appointed to decide what happens to the collateral
ANSWER: a

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NO.17 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
What is the amount of the principal plus interest due at maturity on a 1-month (31-day) deposit of EUR 50
million placed at 3.67%?
A.EUR 50,152,916.70
B.EUR 50,155,849.30
C.EUR 50,158,013.90
D.EUR 50,161,888.90
ANSWER: c

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NO.18 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
Written confirmation is a function that can be done by:
A.Any dealer as long as he/she is not a party to the trade.
B.Staff in the back-office.
C.Staff in the dealing room who are not dealing.
D.Any staff outside the dealing room.
ANSWER: b

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NO.19 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
Which of the following will tend to have the higher yield?
A.Treasury bill
B.Repo against Treasury bill collateral
C.They have the same yield
D.Cannot say
ANSWER: b

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NO.20 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
The 180-day GBP/USD rate is bid 62 and the 90-day GBP/USD rate is bid 29.
What is the bid rate for 120 days, assuming straight-line interpolation?
A.33
B.42
C.27
D.40
ANSWER: d

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NO.21 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
One of your major customers is visiting your bank and wishes to meet you and see the dealing room.
What is the Model Code recommendation?
A.There is no problem.
B.There is no problem provided the visitor is a member of your customers management and not a dealer
for the customer.
C.There is no problem with a short, one-off visit approved by management.
D.Non-treasury personnel and visitors should not be allowed into the dealing room.
ANSWER: c

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NO.22 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
The seller of a floor:
A.Receives compensation if a reference interest rate falls below an agreed level
B.Pays compensation if a reference interest rate falls below an agreed level
C.Receives compensation if a reference interest rate rises above an agreed level
D.Pays compensation if a reference interest rate rises above an agreed level
ANSWER: b

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NO.23 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
What are some of the major objectives of The Model Code?
A.To clarify the roles of dealers, brokers and customers
B.To promote a high level of ethical, professional behaviour
C.To act as a guide in the absence of government regulation
D.All of the above
ANSWER: d

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NO.24 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
If EUR/USD is 1.1025-28 and the 6-month swap is 112.50/113, what is the 6-month outright price?
A.1.1380-1.11405
B.1.11375-1.1141
C.1.09125-1.0915
D.None of these
ANSWER: b

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NO.25 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
What is the Overnight Index for GBP?
A.SONIA
B.STINA
C.LIBOR
D.EONIA
ANSWER: a

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NO.26 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
Which of the following currencies is quoted on an actual/365 basis for the calculation of interest on
interbank deposits in London?
A.EUR
B.JPY
C.GBP
D.CHF
ANSWER: c

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NO.27 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
What is the ISO code for platinum
A.XAU
B.XAG
C.XPT
D.XPD
ANSWER: c

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NO.28 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
Although The Model Code discourages the extension of forward FX contracts at their historic rates, one of
the conditions required for this is:
A.Prior management approval has been sought.
B.They are executed within six months.
C.They are extended for not more than one year.
D.All of the above.
ANSWER: a

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NO.29 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
The extension of an off-market rate could have the following implications:
A.An unauthorised extension of credit to the counterparty.
B.Deferring a loss to a future date.
C.Deferring an income to a future date.
D.All of the above.
ANSWER: d

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NO.30 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
A 1-month (30-day) USCP with a face value of USD 5 million is quoted at a rate of discount of 2.31%.
How much is the paper worth?
A.USD 4,884,500.00
B.USD 4,990,375.00
C.USD 4,990.506.85
D.USD 4,990,393.49
ANSWER: b

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