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Exam Code: PRINCE2
Exam Name: PRINCE2 (PRINCE2 Foundation)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 239 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which product keeps track of Requests For Change.?
A. Request Log
B. Daily Log
C. Quality Log
D. Issue Log
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of these is NOT a valid Risk Management action?
A. Prevention
B. Denial
C. Reduction
D. Transference
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which would require the production of an Exception Report?
A. When a Project Issue is received
B. When a Project Board member raises a complaint
C. When a Request For Change or Off-Specification has been received
D. When the current forecasts for the end of the stage deviate beyond the delegated tolerance bounds
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following statements is FALSE? Project Managers using PRINCE2 are encouraged to...
A. Establish terms of reference as a prerequisite to the start of the project
B. Use a defined structure for delegation, authority and communication
C. Divide the project into manageable stages for more accurate planning
D. Provide brief reports to management at regular meetings
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which feature of PRINCE2 tells the Project Manager where a product is, what its status is and who is
working on it?
A. Work Package
B. Product Description
C. Checkpoint Report
D. Configuration Management
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which statement is NOT a fundamental principle of" Closing a Project"? "A clear end to a project"
A. provides a useful opportunity to take stock of achievements
B. provides an opportunity to ensure that all unachieved goals and objectives are identified
C. provides the opportunity to evaluate achievement of all the expected benefits
D. is always more successful than the natural tendency to drift into operational Management
Answer: C

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NO.7 What other control is closely linked with configuration management?
A. Risk Management
B. Project Closure
C. Change Control
D. Project Initiation
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of these statements is FALSE?
A. The Project Plan is an overview of the total project.
B. For each stage identified in the Project Plan, a Stage Plan is required.
C. An Exception Plan needs the approval of the next higher level of authority.
D. A Team Plan needs approval by the Project Board.
Answer: D

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NO.9 In "Closing a Project" (CP) the project files are archived. What is the explanation given for this?
A. To provide useful lessons to future projects
B. Never throw anything away.
C. This material may be needed by Programme Management
D. To permit any future audit of the project's actions
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which part of a product lifespan is not part of a project life cycle in the eyes of PRINCE2?
A. The change-over to operational use of the product
B. Assessment of the value of the product after a period of use
C. The specification of the product
D. Finalisation of the business case
Answer: B

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NO.11 In PRINCE2 what product is used to define the information that justifies the setting up,
continuation or termination of the project?
A. Project Initiation Document
B. Business Case
C. End Stage Approval
D. Project Brief
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which one of these statements describes the true purpose of Acceptance Criteria?
A. A justification for undertaking the project based on estimated costs and anticipated benefits.
B. A measurable definition of what must be done for the final product to be acceptable to the Customer.
C. To provide a full and firm foundation for the initiation of a project.
D. To triger 'Starting up a Project'.
Answer: B

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NO.13 If, after a Quality Review Follow-up Action, an error is still not resolved, what action should be taken?
A. An Exception Report is made
B. A Project Issue is raised
C. An Exception Memo is raised
D. The review is reconvened
Answer: B

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NO.14 Fill in the missing phrase from"a project is a management environment that is created for the purpose of
delivering one or more business products according to......"
A. TheCustomer'sNeds
B. An Agreed Contract
C. The Project Plan
D. A specified Business Case
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which document lists the major products of a plan with their key delivery dates?
A. Product Outline
B. Product Breakdown Structure
C. Checkpoint Report
D. Product Checklist
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which of these processes does NOT trigger the Planning (PL) process?
A. Starting Up a Project (SU)
B. Initiating a Project (IP)
C. Managing Stage Boundaries (SB)
D. Controlling a Stage (CS)
Answer: D

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NO.17 How often does PRINCE2 recommend that open Project Issues should be reviewed?
A. Weekly
B. At Exception Assessments
C. At Checkpoint Meetings
D. On a regular basis
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which one of these is NOT a PRINCE2 Component?
A. Plans
B. Controls
C. Work Package
D. Configuration Management
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. Customer quality expectations should be discovered in the process
"Starting Up a Project"
B. Acompany'sQMSbecomespartofPRINCE2
C. PRINCE2 may form part of a company's QMS
D. The Stage Plan describes in detail how part of the Project Plan will be carried out
Answer: B

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NO.20 What is the first job carried out on receipt of a new Project Issue?
A. Allocation of priority
B. Logging
C. Decision on what type of issue
D. Impact Analysis
Answer: B

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NO.21 In a Product Breakdown Structure what category of product is a Highlight Report?
A. Quality
B. Specialist
C. Technical
D. Management
Answer: D

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NO.22 What is the more common term used in PRINCE2 for"deliverable"?
A. Item
B. Package
C. Product
D. Component
Answer: C

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NO.23 Which of these items does NOT involve the Project Board?
A. Exception Assessment
B. Highlight Reports
C. Project Closure
D. Work Package Authorisation
Answer: D

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NO.24 What environment does PRINCE2 assume?
A. A fixed-PRICE contract
B. A Customer/Supplier environment
C. A specialist environment
D. A third-party environment
Answer: B

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NO.25 Which of the following is NOT a PRINCE2 definition of a project?
A. Has an organisation structure
B. Produces defined and measurable business products
C. Uses a defined amount of resources
D. Uses a defined set of techniques
Answer: D

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NO.26 What provision in Planning can be made for implementing Requests for Change?
A. Project and stage tolerances
B. Contingency plans
C. A Change Budget
D. Adding a contingency margin to estimates
Answer: C

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NO.27 What name is given to the permissible deviation from a plan allowed without immediate reporting to
the Project Board?
A. Allowance
B. Contingency
C. Concession
D. Tolerance
Answer: D

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NO.28 What other product is reviewed at the end of each stage apart from the Business Case and Project
Plan?
A. The Project Mandate
B. The Team Plan
C. The Risk Log
D. The Project Brief
Answer: C

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NO.29 In what sequence would the (a) Project Initiation Document, (b) the Project Mandate and (c) the Project
Brief appear in a PRINCE2 project?
A. a, b, c
B. b, c, a
C. c, a, b
D. c, b, a
Answer: B

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NO.30 The configuration of the final deliverable of the project is
A. The sum total of its products
B. The interim products
C. Its product description
D. The single end-product
Answer: A

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Exam Code: MSC-331
Exam Name: Motorola Solutions (Designing and Deploying Mobile Computing Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 69 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Your customer has selected a MC9190-G with a SE4500-SR scan engine. They are now asking
you what the maximum distance they can expect to scan 13 Mil standard UPC-A barcodes. Which of
the following would be your response?
Please reference the Technical Specifications exhibit at the bottom.
A. 6.8 in (17.27 cm)
B. 12.0 in (30.48 cm)
C. 15.5 in (39.37cm)
D. 27.0 in (68.58 cm)
Answer: C

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NO.2 Your are having issues establishing radio communication on a mobile computer and you think
that the client radio output is the problem. In which of the following areas can you adjust the
mobile computers radio transmit power?
A. Fusion Options
B. System Options
C. Regulatory Options
D. Profile Management Options
E. You cannot change the mobile computers radio transmit power
Answer: E

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NO.3 The design phase of the pilot is an area that is often neglected. Which of the following is NOT
true regarding the design phase?
A. The best time to influence a pilot's trustworthy design is at pilot completion.
B. The design phase typically relies on information gathered from the planning phase.
C. Good pilot design should ensure or facilitate a framework for periodic project evaluation.
D. During the design phase you establish best practices to follow for this phase by way of functional
and design specifications, and you perform risk analysis to identify threats and vulnerabilities in
your pilot.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following 802.11 wireless supplicants are available and supported on Motorola
Solutions Mobile Computers (select TWO)?
A. Aegis
B. Fusion
C. Odyssey
D. Windows Zero Configuration
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 Motorola Enterprise Mobility Configuration Tools (EMCTs) are comprehensive tools designed
to assist in staging, provisioning, and troubleshooting, as well as improving the user experience with
Motorola Mobile Devices. Which of the following are Motorola EMCTs Tools (select THREE)?
A. StartupCtl
B. PowerTest
C. RemCapture
D. CtlPanelWM
E. Spread Spectrum Analyzer
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.6 The Enterprise Mobility Developers Kit (EMDK) for .NET allows Microsoft: .NET Compact
Framework developers to programmatically access the enterprise mobility features on the devices.
This developer kit is designed for use with all of the following versions of Microsoft Visual Studio
EXCEPT:
A. Microsoft Visual Studio 2003
B. Microsoft Visual Studio 2005
C. Microsoft Visual Studio 2008
D. Microsoft Visual Studio 2012
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following memory forms is used in most memory cards and solid-state drives?
A. NOR Flash
B. NAND Flash
C. Static Random Access Memory (SRAM)
D. Dynamic random-access memory (DRAM)
Answer: B

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NO.8 A client needs a mobile device solution that requires the following:
GSM and/or CDMA WWAN
Small Form Factor
Consumer Style Device
Occasional Barcode and Photo Capture
What would be the best mobile device selection from the mobile device portfolio?
A. ET1
B. ES400
C. MC75A
D. MC3190
E. MC9090G
Answer: B

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Exam Code: S90-01A
Exam Name: SOA Certified Professional (Fundamental SOA & Service-Oriented Computing)
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Total Q&A: 76 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which of the following statements is false?
A. A service is a unit of logic to which service-orientation has been applied to a meaningful extent.
B. Services are designed to increase the need for integration.
C. Services are the fundamental building blocks of service-oriented solutions.
D. A service composition is comprised of services.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following statements is true.?
A. To apply service-orientation requires the use of Web services.
B. Web services are required in order to build service-oriented solutions.
C. When discussing SOA and service-oriented computing, the term "Web service" must always be
synonymous with (have the same meaning as) the term "service".
D. None of these statements are true.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following statements is false?
A. The design standardization of service contracts helps increase interoperability between services.
B. Design standardization can introduce organizational and cultural challenges because it requires that
the design standards be regularly enforced.
C. The design standardization of service contracts helps avoid the need for transformation technologies.
D. Design standardization is not relevant to the design of service compositions. It is only relevant to the
design of individual services.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Below are four statements about business and technology alignment, as it pertains to service-oriented
computing. Which of these statements is false?
A. Business and technology alignment represents the extent to which an IT enterprise and its automated
systems can mirror and evolve in alignment with the business.
B. Service-oriented computing promotes the abstraction and accurate encapsulation and expression of
business logic in services. This supports business and technology alignment.
C. The pursuit of business and technology alignment can be supported by the collaboration of business
analysts and technology experts during analysis and modeling phases.
D. In order for an IT enterprise to increase business and technology alignment, its business analysts must
become more technical and assume the responsibilities of technology experts so that they can
independently design quality business services that take both business and technology considerations
into account.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following statements is true?
A. "Contract first" design is important to SOA because it makes you think about service contract design
options at the same time that you are building the underlying service logic.
B. "Contract first" design is important to SOA because it forces you to establish standardized service
contracts prior to the development of the underlying service logic.
C. "Contract first" design is important to SOA because without a contract, services cannot be invoked.
However, there is no preference as to when, during the service delivery lifecycle, the contract should be
designed or established.
D. "Contract first" design is an unproven design technique that is not commonly employed when
delivering service-oriented solutions and is therefore not considered important to SOA.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following statements is false?
A. The governance burden of services is not impacted by the SOA project delivery approach.
B. The bottom-up approach to SOA project delivery results in less up-front impact, but will usually
increase the eventual governance burden of services.
C. Alternative approaches exist that provide a compromise between bottom-up and top-down SOA project
delivery approaches.
D. Up-front analysis as part of a top-down SOA project delivery approach helps reduce the eventual
governance burden of services.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following statements does not make sense?
A. Intrinsic interoperability is important because it helps increase the quantity of integration projects that
may be required to accommodate new business requirements, thereby fostering agility.
B. Intrinsic interoperability is important because it enables services to exchange data without having to
resort to transformation technologies.
C. Intrinsic interoperability is important because it is fundamental to enabling services to be repeatedly
composed.
D. Intrinsic interoperability is important because one of the goals of service-oriented computing is to
increase intrinsic interoperability.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following statements accurately describes the strategic benefit of Increased Federation?
A. A target state whereby all services are always consistently delivered as Web services.
B. A target state in which the entire enterprise has been successfully service-oriented.
C. A target state whereby the enterprise has adopted SOA by replacing all legacy environments with
custom-developed services.
D. A target state whereby standardized service contracts have been established to express a consistent
and unified service endpoint layer.
Answer: D

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NO.9 In order to achieve __________ we have traditionally required __________ projects. With
service-orientation, we aim to establish an intrinsic level of __________ within each service so as to
reduce the need for __________ effort.
A. vendor diversity, integration, vendor diversity, design
B. agility, development, scalability, development
C. interoperability, integration, interoperability, integration
D. autonomy, integration, statelessness, integration
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following is not a benefit of maintaining a vendor-neutral and business-driven context for a
service-oriented architecture?
A. Establish a technology architecture with a fixed scope and purpose that remains unchanged,
regardless of how the business may need to change over time.
B. Avoid establishing a technology architecture that will need to be replaced in the near future when it no
longer adequately fulfills business requirements.
C. Leverage new technological innovation in order to maximize the fulfillment of business requirements.
D. Establish a technology architecture that can stay in alignment with how the business may need to
change over time.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: S90-08A
Exam Name: SOA Certified Professional (Advanced SOA Design & Architecture)
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Total Q&A: 100 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 When applying the Asynchronous Queuing pattern you aim to establish an environment in which:
A.an intermediate buffer exists between a service and its service consumer
B.temporary message storage is provided in case either the service or service consumer are unavailable
C.periodic re-transmission of a message is supported until it is successfully delivered
D.enforcement of consistent, uninterrupted, synchronous communication between service and service
consumer are guaranteed
Answer:ABC

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NO.2 The use of the Intermediate Routing pattern typically results in:
A.common routing logic being removed from service logic and placed into service agents
B.common routing logic being removed from service agents and placed into a database
C.common routing logic being physically centralized into a single service
D.common routing logic being physically centralized into a single service composition
Answer:A

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NO.3 Load balancing is commonly associated with which pattern?
A.Atomic Service Transaction
B.Intermediate Routing
C.Service Broker
D.Decoupled Contract
Answer:B

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NO.4 The Reliable Messaging pattern requires:
A.the use of standardized service contracts in order to enable message atomic transaction details to be
carried in the message header
B.a framework for temporarily persisting messages and issuing acknowledgements
C.the application of the Official Endpoint pattern in order to enable acknowledgement features
D.a framework capable of bridging disparate messaging protocols in order to exchange schemas
between compatible services
Answer:B

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NO.5 Which of the following statements is false?
A.The Contract Centralization pattern positions the service contract as the official entry point into the
service logic.
B.The Contract Centralization pattern can impose performance overhead and requires the use of design
standards.
C.The application of the Contract Centralization pattern enables access to underlying service resources
through the use of secondary or unofficial technical contracts.
D.The Decoupled Contract pattern supports the application of the Contract Centralization pattern.
Answer:C

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NO.6 Governance can become an issue with service agents because:
A.You will need to determine who will own and maintain the service agents.
B.Changes to a single service agent can impact multiple services throughout a service inventory.
C.Service agents need to be versioned, just like services.
D.All of the above.
Answer:D

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NO.7 Assuming the Reliable Messaging pattern is successfully applied, which of the following statements is
correct?
A.A service agent intercepts and stores a message from the service consumer. The service agent then
returns an acknowledgement back to the service consumer. Next, the service agent forwards the
message to the service and when it receives an acknowledgement back from the service, it deletes the
message.
B.A service agent intercepts and stores a message from the service consumer. The service agent then
forwards the message to the service. Next, the service agent receives an acknowledgement from the
service, which it returns to the service consumer. Finally, the service agent deletes the message and
related acknowledgements.
C.The service consumer stores the message and forwards it to a service agent, which issues an
acknowledgement back to the service consumer. The service agent then forwards the message to the
service and when it receives an acknowledgement from the service, the service agent informs the service
consumer so that it can delete the message and the acknowledgement.
D.None of the above.
Answer:A

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NO.8 The scope and size of different service inventory architectures can vary.
A. True
B. False
Answer:A

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NO.9 Which of the following statements is false?
A.Widespread use of the Messaging Metadata pattern can be seen in the emergence of many WS-*
extensions that define industry standard SOAP header blocks that carry metadata.
B.Messaging frameworks and technologies need to provide support for the reading and writing of
message headers or properties in order to fully support the application of the Messaging Metadata
pattern.
C.The Messaging Metadata pattern is not applicable to situations where the message sender and
receiver need to participate in stateful or conversational message exchanges.
D.The Messaging Metadata pattern can support the application of patterns such as Intermediate Routing
by supplementing messages with activity-specific metadata.
Answer:C

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NO.10 Each service composition within a service inventory shares the same service composition architecture.
A. True
B. False
Answer:B

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NO.11 Which statement regarding intermediate routing is true?
A.The application of the Intermediate Routing pattern is suitable for handling message routing
requirements that are dynamic in nature and difficult to anticipate in advance.
B.The application of the Intermediate Routing pattern is suitable for handling pre-determined message
paths with fixed routing requirements that cannot be changed at runtime.
C.The application of the Intermediate Routing pattern tends to improve runtime performance when
compared to an approach whereby routing logic is embedded within individual services.
D.None of these statements are true.
Answer:A

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NO.12 Which of the following patterns may also require the application of the Service Agent pattern?
A.Reliable Messaging
B.Asynchronous Queuing
C.Intermediate Routing
D.Policy Centralization
Answer:ABCD

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NO.13 The application of the Intermediate Routing pattern can result in multiple service agents intercepting a
message before it arrives at its destination.
A. True
B. False
Answer:A

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NO.14 A service agent has a technical contract that allows it to be explicitly invoked by service consumer
programs.
A. True
B. False
Answer:B

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NO.15 The queue established by applying the Asynchronous Queuing pattern enables service consumer and
service to revert to a stateless condition before a data exchange has fully completed.
A. True
B. False
Answer:A

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NO.16 The application of the Intermediate Routing pattern can address which of the following needs?
A.The need to increase the autonomy of a service due to its reliance on a shared data source.
B.The need to perform content-based routing based upon metadata found in the message header.
C.The need for load-balanced access to a redundantly deployed service.
D.The need to provide pre-defined compensating logic for when an atomic service transaction fails.
Answer:BC

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NO.17 In the message exchange framework established by the application of the Reliable Messaging pattern,
what roles are typically fulfilled by service agents?
A.service agents can process positive acknowledgements
B.service agents can process negative acknowledgements
C.service agents can load balance messages
D.service agents can route messages based on their content
Answer:AB

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NO.18 Which of the following statements is true?
A.The overuse of service agents can lead to dependencies on proprietary vendor platforms.
B.The use of service agents is limited to the service architecture.
C.Service agents are common in orchestration environments but not within enterprise service bus
environments.
D.None of these statements are true.
Answer:A

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NO.19 Which of the following statements are false?
A.Using the Reliable Messaging pattern can improve the quality of messaging-based communication.
B.The Reliable Messaging pattern is applied to databases, not services.
C.The Reliable Messaging pattern is one of the patterns that can be associated with the Enterprise
Service Bus compound pattern.
D.The Reliable Messaging pattern is always applied together with the Atomic Service Transaction pattern.
Answer:BD

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NO.20 The application of the Contract Centralization pattern requires that runtime access policies be
implemented.
A. True
B. False
Answer:B

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Exam Code: PW0-270
Exam Name: CWAP (Certified Wireless Analysis Professional)
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Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 What IEEE 802.11 technology is illustrated by the exhibit?
A. Fragmentation
B. TCP Fragment Bursting
C. A-MSDU
D. A-MPDU E. U-APSD
F. Jumbo frames
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which statements are true regarding Beacons from an AP in an HT infrastructure BSS that is configured
with multiple WLAN profiles? (Choose 3)
A. Beacons can be disabled for security purposes.
B. The BSSID and Source Address are always the same.
C. The Destination Address is always FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF.
D. The Receiver address and the BSSID are always the same.
E. When the SSID is "hidden," the ESS subfield of the Capability Information field distinguishes one BSS
from another.
F. All Beacons generated by APs contain a TIM information element.
G. The Beacon interval must be the same for all WLANs (SSIDs) supported by a single AP
Answer: B,C,F

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NO.3 What HT PPDU format is shown in the exhibit?
A. HT-mixed format
B. HT-greenfield format
C. Non-HT format
D. Non-HT duplicate format
E. Dual Training Field format
F. ERP-OFDM format
Answer: A

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NO.4 In which 802.11 frames is the SSID present, provided the SSID is not removed through proprietary
software configuration by an administrator? (Choose 3)
A. Association Request
B. Reassociation Request
C. Probe Response
D. Disassociation
E. Authentication
F. Association Response
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.5 In the frame decode shown, there are two sets of supported data rates. 1, 2, 5.5, and 11 Mbps are all
shown as "basic" data rates, and 6, 9, 12, 18, 24, 36, 48, and 54 Mbps are shown simply as supported
data rates.
What is true of "basic" data rates in this context?
A. The AP requires all client stations to support Basic rates in order to associate to its BSS.
B. The highest data rate set to Basic is automatically used to send broadcast traffic such as Beacon
frames.
C. Basic rates are optional data rates for the BSS, often used for assuring connectivity for legacy stations.
D. Basic rates are only used for multicast traffic, and do not affect unicast traffic.
E. Basic rates are defined in an AP's service set to specify mandatory data rates for all retry frames.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Using the exhibit as a reference, answer the following.
STA1 sent a data frame to Mesh AP2 destined for a local file server on the same subnet with MAC
address 00:11:22:33:44:55. Mesh AP2's mesh forwarding algorithm determined that the frame should be
forwarded through Mesh AP1.
In the frame sent from Mesh AP2 to Mesh AP1, what is true of the contents of the MAC header? (Choose
3)
A. SA = Mesh AP2's MAC Address
B. RA = Mesh AP1's MAC Address
C. TA = STA1's MAC Address
D. DA = 00:11:22:33:44:55
E. To DS = 0
F. From DS = 1
Answer: B,D,F

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NO.7 Which statement is true regarding the Association Identifier (AID) used in IEEE 802.11 WLANs?
A. The AID has a maximum value of 2048, and is used to uniquely identify a wireless client station
associated with an access point.
B. The AID has a maximum value of 2007, and resides in the duration/ID field of a PS-Poll frame.
C. The client station is assigned an AID value in the 802.11 authentication response frame.
D. The AID field is present only in Beacons frames.
E. The AID is used by the access point in EDCA mode to reduce duplicate transmissions when sending
multicasts.
Answer: B

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NO.8 According to 802.11-2007, in what frame type(s) might you find the PMK Count and PMKID List fields?
A. All frames that include the RSN IE
B. Only (Re)Association Request frames
C. Beacon and Probe Response frames
D. EAPoL 4-Way Handshake frames
E. Authentication and Association Request and Response frames
Answer: B

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NO.9 What is the purpose of a PHY preamble.?
A. It provides the receiver(s) with an opportunity for RF channel synchronization prior to the start of the
PLCP header.
B. It communicates important information about the PSDU's length, rate, and upper layer protocol-related
parameters.
C. It provides a cyclic redundancy check (CRC) for the receiving station to validate that the PLCP header
was received correctly.
D. It indicates to the PHY the modulation that shall be used for transmission (and reception) of the PSDU.
Answer: A

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NO.10 When a 5 GHz HT station in a 40 MHz BSS desires to protect a 40 MHz transmission from an OFDM
station using an RTS/CTS or CTS-to-Self exchange, what frame format is used for the RTS and/or CTS
frames?
A. HT-mixed format
B. HT-greenfield format
C. Dual-CTS
D. Non-HT Duplicate
E. Phased Coexistence PPDU
Answer: D

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NO.1 A packet filtering firewall inspects each packet passing through the network and accepts or rejects it
based on user-defined rules. Based on which of the following information are these rules set to filter the
packets?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Layer 4 protocol information
B. Actual data in the packet
C. Interface of sent or received traffic
D. Source and destination Layer 3 address
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.2 A scenario involves a pool of users with private IP addresses who need to access the Internet;
however, the company has a limited number of IP addresses and needs to ensure users occupy only one
public IP address.
Which technology is used to allow a pool of users to share one global IP address for Internet access?
A. Port Address Translation
B. Per-user Address Translation
C. Pool Address Translation
D. Private Address Translation
Answer: A

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NO.3 You work as a Network Architect for Tech Perfect Inc. The company has a corporate LAN network. You
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l Limit events that occur from security threats such as viruses, worms, and spyware.
l Restrict access to the network based on identity or security posture.
Which of the following services will you deploy in the network to accomplish the tasks?
A. NetFlow
B. Protocol-Independent Multicast
C. Network Admission Control
D. Firewall Service Module
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following is the default port for POP3?
A. 25
B. 21
C. 80
D. 110
Answer: B

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NO.5 WinDump, tcpdump, and Wireshark specify which fields of information libpcap should record.
Which of the following filters do they use in order to accomplish the task?
A. Berkeley Packet Filter
B. IM filter
C. Web filter
D. FIR filter
Answer: A

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NO.6 Adam works as a Security Administrator for Umbrella Inc. A project has been assigned to him to
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into several subnets and installed firewalls all over the network. He has placed very stringent rules on all
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worried about the programs like Hping2 that can get into a network through covert channels.
Which of the following is the most effective way to protect the network of the company from an attacker
using Hping2 to scan his internal network?
A. Block ICMP type 13 messages
B. Block ICMP type 3 messages
C. Block all outgoing traffic on port 21
D. Block all outgoing traffic on port 53
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following limits the number of packets seen by tcpdump?
A. BPF-based filter
B. Recipient filtering
C. Sender filtering
D. IFilters
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following proxy servers is placed anonymously between the client and remote server and
handles all of the traffic from the client?
A. Web proxy server
B. Open proxy server
C. Forced proxy server
D. Caching proxy server
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which of the following devices is used to identify out-of-date software versions, applicable patches,
system upgrades, etc?
A. Retinal scanner
B. Fingerprint reader
C. Smart card reader
D. Vulnerability scanner
Answer: D

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runs on Windows operating system. Peter wants to collect data and evidences for further analysis. He
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system?
A. Volatile data, file slack, internet traces, registry, memory dumps, system state backup, file system
B. Volatile data, file slack, registry, memory dumps, file system, system state backup, interne t traces
C. Volatile data, file slack, file system, registry, memory dumps, system state backup, interne t traces
D. Volatile data, file slack, registry, system state backup, internet traces, file system, memory dumps
Answer: C

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NO.11 Choose the best explanation for the resulting error when entering the command below.
A. The command is attempting to create a standard access list with extended access list param eters.
B. The ACL commands should be entered from the (config-router) configuration mode.
C. The wildcard mask is not provided for the source and destination addresses.
D. The port number given does not correspond with the proper transport protocol.
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which of the following statements are true about an IDP rule base notification?
A. It can be defined as reusable logical entities that the user can apply to the rules.
B. When an action is performed, a notification defines how to log information.
C. It is used to specify the type of network traffic that has to be monitored for attacks.
D. It directs an IDP to drop or close the connection.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which of the following number ranges is used for the IP Standard ACL?
A. 100-199
B. 1000-1099
C. 600-699
D. 1-99
Answer: D

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NO.14 You work as a Security Manger for Tech Perfect Inc. The company has a Windows-based network.
You want to scroll real-time network traffic to a command console in a readable format. Which of the
following command line utilities will you use to accomplish the task?
A. WinPcap
B. WinDump
C. iptables
D. libpcap
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which of the following is an attack with IP fragments that cannot be reassembled?
A. Dictionary attack
B. Smurf attack
C. Teardrop attack
D. Password guessing attack
Answer: C

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NO.16 John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned a project for testing the security of
www.we-are-secure.com. He wants to corrupt an IDS signature database so that performing attacks on
the server is made easy and he can observe the flaws in the We-are-secure server. To perform his task,
he first of all sends a virus that continuously changes its signature to avoid detection from IDS. Since the
new signature of the virus does not match the old signature, which is entered in the IDS signature
database, IDS becomes unable to point out the malicious virus. Which of the following IDS evasion
attacks is John performing?
A. Session splicing attack
B. Evasion attack
C. Polymorphic shell code attack
D. Insertion attack
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which of the following algorithms is used as a default algorithm for ESP extension header in IPv6?
A. Electronic Codebook (ECB) Mode
B. Cipher Block Chaining (CBC) Mode
C. Propagating Cipher Block Chaining (PCBC) Mode
D. Cipher Feedback (CFB) Mode
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which of the following commands configures a router to encrypt all passwords entered after the
command has been executed, as well as all passwords already on the running configuration?
A. no service password-encryption
B. enable password-encryption
C. no enable password-encryption
D. service password-encryption
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which of the following are the countermeasures against a man-in-the-middle attack?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Using Secret keys for authentication.
B. Using public key infrastructure authentication.
C. Using Off-channel verification.
D. Using basic authentication.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.20 Which of the following IDs is used to reassemble the fragments of a datagram at the destination point?
A. IP identification number
B. SSID
C. MAK ID
D. IP address
Answer: A

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NO.21 Which of the following can be monitored by using the host intrusion detection system (HIDS)?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Computer performance
B. File system integrity
C. Storage space on computers
D. System files
Answer: B,D

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NO.22 Which of the following components are usually found in an Intrusion detection system (IDS).?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Firewall
B. Console
C. Gateway
D. Modem
E. Sensor
Answer: B,E

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NO.23 Which of the following statements about the traceroute utility are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It generates a buffer overflow exploit by transforming an attack shell code so that the new attack shell
code cannot be recognized by any Intrusion Detection Systems.
B. It uses ICMP echo packets to display the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and the IP address of
each gateway along the route to the remote host.
C. It records the time taken for a round trip for each packet at each router.
D. It is an online tool that performs polymorphic shell code attacks.
Answer: B,C

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NO.24 Which of the following ICMPv6 neighbor discovery messages is sent by hosts to request an immediate
router advertisement, instead of waiting for the next scheduled advertisement?
A. Router Advertisement
B. Neighbor Advertisement
C. Router Solicitation
D. Neighbor Solicitation
Answer: C

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NO.25 You work as a Network Administrator for Net Perfect Inc. The company has a TCP/IP network. You have
been assigned a task to configure security mechanisms for the network of the company. You have
decided to configure a packet filtering firewall. Which of the following may be the reasons that made you
choose a packet filtering firewall as a security mechanism?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It makes security transparent to end-users which provide easy use of the client application s.
B. It prevents application-layer attacks.
C. It is easy to install packet filtering firewalls in comparison to the other network security sol utions.
D. It easily matches most of the fields in Layer 3 packets and Layer 4 segment headers, and thus,
provides a lot of flexibility in implementing security policies.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.26 Which of the following protocols does IPsec use to perform various security functions in the network?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Skinny Client Control Protocol
B. Authentication Header
C. Encapsulating Security Payload
D. Internet Key Exchange
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.27 Which of the following intrusion detection systems (IDS) monitors network traffic and compares it
against an established baseline?
A. Network-based
B. File-based
C. Signature-based
D. Anomaly-based
Answer: D

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NO.28 Which of the following types of Intrusion Detection Systems consists of an agent on a host that identifies
intrusions by analyzing system calls, application logs, file-system modifications (binaries, password files,
capability/acl databases) and other host activities and state?
A. HIDS
B. NIDS
C. APIDS
D. PIDS
Answer: A

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NO.29 Which of the following are the reasons that network administrators use Access Control Lists?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Encrypting data to be routed
B. Removing weak user password
C. Controlling VTY access into a router
D. Filtering traffic as it passes through a router
Answer: C,D

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NO.30 Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) spoofing, also known as ARP poisoning or ARP Poison Routing
(APR), is a technique used to attack an Ethernet wired or wireless network. ARP spoofing may allow an
attacker to sniff data frames on a local area network (LAN), modify the traffic, or stop the traffic altogether.
The principle of ARP spoofing is to send fake ARP messages to an Ethernet LAN.
What steps can be used as a countermeasure of ARP spoofing?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Using ARP Guard utility
B. Using smash guard utility
C. Using static ARP entries on servers, workstation and routers
D. Using ARP watch utility
E. Using IDS Sensors to check continually for large amount of ARP traffic on local subnets
Answer: A,C,D,E

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Exam Code: GSNA
Exam Name: GIAC (GIAC Systems and Network Auditor)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 368 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 You work as a Network Administrator for XYZ CORP. The company has a Windows Active
Directory-based single domain single forest network. The functional level of the forest is Windows Server
2003. The company's management has decided to provide laptops to its sales team members. These
laptops are equipped with smart card readers. The laptops will be configured as wireless network clients.
You are required to accomplish the following tasks: The wireless network communication should be
secured. The laptop users should be able to use smart cards for getting authenticated. In order to
accomplish the tasks, you take the following steps: Configure 802.1x and WEP for the wireless
connections. Configure the PEAP-MS-CHAP v2 protocol for authentication. What will happen after you
have taken these steps?
A. Both tasks will be accomplished.
B. The laptop users will be able to use smart cards for getting authenticated.
C. The wireless network communication will be secured.
D. None of the tasks will be accomplished.
Answer: C

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NO.2 John works as a contract Ethical Hacker. He has recently got a project to do security checking for
www.we-are-secure.com. He wants to find out the operating system of the we-are-secure server in the
information gathering step. Which of the following commands will he use to accomplish the task? (Choose
two)
A. nc 208.100.2.25 23
B. nmap -v -O www.we-are-secure.com
C. nc -v -n 208.100.2.25 80
D. nmap -v -O 208.100.2.25
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 John works as a Network Administrator for Perfect Solutions Inc. The company has a Linux-based
network. John is working as a root user on the Linux operating system. He wants to forward all the kernel
messages to the remote host having IP address 192.168.0.1. Which of the following changes will he
perform in the syslog.conf file to accomplish the task?
A. kern.* @192.168.0.1
B. !*.* @192.168.0.1
C. !kern.* @192.168.0.1
D. *.* @192.168.0.1
Answer: A

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NO.4 George works as an office assistant in Soft Well Inc. The company uses the Windows Vista operating
system. He wants to disable a program running on a computer. Which of the following Windows Defender
tools will he use to accomplish the task?
A. Allowed items
B. Quarantined items
C. Options
D. Software Explorer
Answer: D

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NO.5 You run the wc -c file1.txt command. If this command displays any error message, you want to store the
error message in the error.txt file. Which of the following commands will you use to accomplish the task?
A. wc -c file1.txt >>error.txt
B. wc -c file1.txt 1>error.txt
C. wc -c file1.txt 2>error.txt
D. wc -c file1.txt >error.txt
Answer: C

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NO.6 You work as the Network Administrator for XYZ CORP. The company has a Unix-based network. You
want to print the super block and block the group information for the filesystem present on a system.
Which of the following Unix commands can you use to accomplish the task?
A. e2fsck
B. dump
C. dumpe2fs
D. e2label
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following statements are true about locating rogue access points using WLAN discovery
software such as NetStumbler, Kismet, or MacStumbler if you are using a Laptop integrated with Wi-Fi
compliant MiniPCI card? (Choose two)
A. These tools can determine the rogue access point even when it is attached to a wired network.
B. These tools can determine the authorization status of an access point.
C. These tools cannot detect rogue access points if the victim is using data encryption.
D. These tools detect rogue access points if the victim is using IEEE 802.11 frequency bands.
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 Which of the following statements about the traceroute utility are true?
A. It uses ICMP echo packets to display the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and the IP address of
each gateway along the route to the remote host.
B. It records the time taken for a round trip for each packet at each router.
C. It is an online tool that performs polymorphic shell code attacks.
D. It generates a buffer overflow exploit by transforming an attack shell code so that the new attack shell
code cannot be recognized by any Intrusion Detection Systems.
Answer: A,B

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NO.9 John works as a Security Professional. He is assigned a project to test the security of www.we-
are-secure.com. John wants to get the information of all network connections and listening ports in the
numerical form. Which of the following commands will he use?
A. netstat -e
B. netstat r
C. netstat -s
D. netstat an
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following allows the use of multiple virtual servers using different DNS names resolved by
the same IP address?
A. HTTP 1.1
B. JAVA
C. HTML
D. VPN
Answer: A

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NO.11 A Web developer with your company wants to have wireless access for contractors that come in to
work on various projects. The process of getting this approved takes time. So rather than wait, he has put
his own wireless router attached to one of the network ports in his department. What security risk does
this present?
A. None, adding a wireless access point is a common task and not a security risk.
B. It is likely to increase network traffic and slow down network performance.
C. This circumvents network intrusion detection.
D. An unauthorized WAP is one way for hackers to get into a network.
Answer: D

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NO.12 John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned the project of testing the security of
www.we-are-secure.com. He wants to use Kismet as a wireless sniffer to sniff the Weare-secure network.
Which of the following IEEE-based traffic can be sniffed with Kismet?
A. 802.11g
B. 802.11n
C. 802.11b
D. 802.11a
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.13 You work as a Network Administrator for XYZ CORP. The company has a Windows Server 2008
network environment. The network is configured as a Windows Active Directory-based single forest single
domain network. You have installed a Windows Server 2008 computer. You have configured auditing on
this server. The client computers of the company use the Windows XP Professional operating system.
You want to audit each event that is related to a user managing an account in the user database on the
computer where the auditing is configured. To accomplish the task, you have enabled the Audit account
management option on the server. Which of the following events can be audited by enabling this audit
option.?
A. Access to an Active Directory object
B. Change of password for a user account
C. Addition of a user account to a group
D. Creation of a user account
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.14 You work as a Network Auditor for XYZ CORP. The company has a Windows-based network. While
auditing the company's network, you are facing problems in searching the faults and other entities that
belong to it. Which of the following risks may occur due to the existence of these problems?
A. Residual risk
B. Inherent risk
C. Secondary risk
D. Detection risk
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which of the following is Microsoft's implementation of the file and application server for the Internet
and private intranets?
A. Internet Server Service (ISS)
B. Internet Server (IS)
C. WWW Server (WWWS)
D. Internet Information Server (IIS)
Answer: D

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NO.16 You work as the Network Administrator for XYZ CORP. The company has a Unix-based network. You
want to set some terminal characteristics and environment variables. Which of the following Unix
configuration files can you use to accomplish the task?
A. /etc/sysconfig/routed
B. /proc/net
C. /etc/sysconfig/network-scripts/ifcfg-interface
D. /etc/sysconfig/init
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which of the following tools works both as an encryption-cracking tool and as a keylogger?
A. Magic Lantern
B. KeyGhost Keylogger
C. Alchemy Remote Executor
D. SocketShield
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which of the following is a wireless auditing tool that is used to pinpoint the actual physical location of
wireless devices in the network?
A. KisMAC
B. Ekahau
C. Kismet
D. AirSnort
Answer: B

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NO.19 Sarah works as a Web Developer for XYZ CORP. She is creating a Web site for her company. Sarah
wants greater control over the appearance and presentation of Web pages. She wants the ability to
precisely specify the display attributes and the appearance of elements on the Web pages. How will she
accomplish this?
A. Use the Database Design wizard.
B. Make two templates, one for the index page and the other for all other pages.
C. Use Cascading Style Sheet (CSS).
D. Make a template and use it to create each Web page.
Answer: C

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NO.20 You check performance logs and note that there has been a recent dramatic increase in the amount of
broadcast traffic. What is this most likely to be an indicator of?
A. Misconfigured router
B. DoS attack
C. Syn flood
D. Virus
Answer: B

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