2013年11月30日星期六

Autodesk certification MAYA11.A the latest examination questions and answers come out

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Exam Code: MAYA11.A
Exam Name: Autodesk (Maya 2011 Certified Associate)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 30 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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Exam Code: Maya12-A
Exam Name: Autodesk (Maya 2012 Certified Associate Examination)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 30 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 What is the syntax to add a single-line comment in a script?
A. //
B. <>
C. "
D. ==
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which file format lets you exchange complex data between Maya and other software while
preserving the data's overall behavior?
A. OBJ
B. FBX
C. DXF
D. None of the above
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which statement is most accurate?
DmapAutofocus...
A. adjusts the size of the square grid of pixels that's placed in front of the light for the first pass
Raytrace
Shadow calculation
B. is the attribute that controls the focal point used in depth of field calculation
C. controls the shadow anti-aliasing level used for the Raytrace Shadow calculation
D. is the attribute that automatically controls where the Dmap will be focused.
Answer: B

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NO.4 "Swimming" is a potential problem with Projected textures. This is an effect where it looks like
the
animated object is moving or 'swimming' through the texture.
What can be done to fix this? Select all that apply.
A. If the object is just transforming and not deforming, parent the 3D Placement node to the
animated object
B. If the object is deforming, you can use a Texture Reference object or convert the file to a 2D
texture
C. If the object is deforming, you can bake the deformation by using Edit > Keys > Bake
Simulation
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 When choosing an NISC Video Image preset, in addition to image width and height, which
other setting is changed
A. Pixel Aspect Ratio
B. Renderable Camera
C. File format becomes TGA
D. Device Aspect Ratio
Answer: A

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NO.6 To composite two layers together you would use...
A. Composition settings
B. Garbage Mask
C. Remap Color
D. Blend & Comp
Answer: A

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NO.7 The shading network in a Normal 2DTexture Map is made up of which of the following?
A. One file texture node and a projection node that defines the texture's placement
B. One file texture node and the place2DTexture node that defines the texture's placement.
C. Two place 2DTexture nodes.
D. One place 2DTexture node and one place 3Dtexture node
Answer: B

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NO.8 How is a Soft Body different from a Rigid Body?
A. Afield can't be connected to Soft Body particles.
B. Rigid Bodies can't be affected by a Dynamic constraint.
C. A Soft Body can be keyframed using the Set Active Key command.
D. Rigid Bodies don't deform.
Answer: D

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NO.9 What modes can you work in when modeling with Subdivision surfaces?
A. Polygon mode and NURBS mode
B. Standard mode and Polygon mode.
C. Standard mode and Coarser mode.
D. NURBS mode and Component mode.
Answer: B

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NO.10 What does the nConstraint Membership Tool for nCloth allows users to do?
A. Add vertices to a selected dynamic constraint
B. Remove vertices from a selected dynamic constraint
C. Both of the above.
D. Neither of the above.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 010-111
Exam Name: ACSM (ACSM Certified Personal Trainer)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 208 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 .Functions of bone include all of the following EXCEPT
A. Support for the body.
B. Protection of organs and tissues.
C. Production of red blood cells.
D. Production of force.
Answer: D

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NO.2 .Blood leaving the heart to be oxygenated in the lungs must first pass through the right atrium and
ventricle. Through which valve does blood flow when moving from the right atrium to the right
ventricle?
A. Bicuspid valve.
B. Tricuspid valve.
C. Pulmonic valve.
D. Aortic valve.
Answer: B

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NO.3 .Which of the following is considered to be a "balland-socket" joint?
A. Ankle.
B. Elbow.
C. Knee.
D. Hip.
Answer: D

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NO.4 .A baseball pitcher has been complaining of weakness in the lateral rotation motions of the
shoulder. You have been asked to evaluate him for a strengthening program. Which of the
following muscles would you have him concentrate on strengthening?
A. Subscapularis.
B. Teres major.
C. Latissimus dorsi.
D. Teres minor.
Answer: D

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NO.5 .Standard sites for the measurement of skinfolds include the
A. Medial thigh.
B. Biceps.
C. Infrailiac.
D. Forearm.
Answer: B

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NO.6 .Running is a locomotor activity similar to walking but with some differences. In comparison to
walking, running requires greater
A. Balance.
B. Muscle strength.
C. Range of motion.
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.7 .The law of inertia
A. States that a body at rest tends to remain at rest, whereas a body in motion tends to continue to
stay in motion with consistent speed and in the same direction unless acted on by an outside force
B. States that the velocity of a body is changed only when acted on by an additional force
C. States that the driving force of the body is doubled and that the rate of acceleration is also
doubled.
D. States that the production of any force will create another force that will be opposite and equal
to the first force.
Answer: A

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NO.8 .Arteries are large-diameter vessels that carry blood away from the heart. As they course through
the body, they progressively decrease in size until they become
A. Arterioles.
B. Anastomoses.
C. Venules.
D. Veins.
Answer: A

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NO.9 The C-shaped cartilages of the trachea allow all of the following to occur EXCEPT
A. Ciliated movement of mucus-secreting cells.
B. Distention of the esophagus.
C. Maintenance of open airway.
D. Prevention of tracheal collapse during pres- sure changes.
Answer: A

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NO.10 .Which of the following is the ability of a force to cause rotation of a lever?
A. Center of gravity.
B. Base of support.
C. Torque.
D. Stability.
Answer: C

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NO.11 .A client in your exercise class has been complaining of back pain with no ridiculer symptoms. This
person has been treated medically and is now joining the exercise program to improve flexibility in
the low back. Which exercise would be most appropriate for this person to address the stated
goal?
A. Hip flexor stretch.
B. Knee-to-chest stretch.
C. Gastrocnemius stretch.
D. Lateral trunk stretch.
Answer: B

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NO.12 .The arm is capable of performing all of the following motions EXCEPT
A. Flexion.
B. Abduction.
C. Inversion.
D. Supination.
Answer: C

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NO.13 .The prime movers for extension of the knee are the
A. Bicepsfemoris.
B. Bicepsbrachii.
C. Quadricepsfemoris.
D. Gastrocnemius.
Answer: C

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NO.14 .Blood from the peripheral anatomy flows to the heart through the superior and inferior venae
cavae into the
A. Right atrium.
B. Left atrium.
C. Right ventricle.
D. Left ventricle.
Answer: A

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NO.15 .A standard site for the measurement of circumfer- ences is the
A. Abdomen.
B. Neck.
C. Wrist.
D. Ankle.
Answer: A

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NO.16 .In the organization of skeletal muscle, the muscle cell contains the contractile proteins. Which of
the following is a contractile protein?
A. Myosin.
B. Muscle fascicle.
C. Myofibril.
D. Muscle fiber.
Answer: A

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NO.17 .Cartilage is categorized as which of the following types of connective tissue?
A. Loose.
B. Dense.
C. Fluid.
D. Supporting.
Answer: D

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NO.18 .All of the following statements are true regarding long bones EXCEPT
A. Thediaphysis is composed of compact bone.
B. The epiphysis consists of spongy bone.
C. Most bones of the axial skeleton are of this type.
D. The central shaft encases themedullary canal.
Answer: C

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NO.19 .The most common site used for measurement of the pulse during exercise is the
A. Popliteal.
B. Femoral.
C. Radial.
D. Dorsalis pedis.
Answer: C

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NO.20 .An abnormal curve of the spine with lateral deviation of the vertebral column is called
A. Lordosis.
B. Scoliosis.
C. Kyphosis.
D. Primary curve.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: SD0-302
Exam Name: SDI (SDI - SERVICE DESK MANAGER QUALIFICATION)
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Total Q&A: 232 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which of the following statements about Problem Management is correct?
A. The Service Desk is not responsible for Problem Management but contributes by identifying recurring
Incidents
B. The Service Desk is not responsible for Problem Management but manages Major Incident reviews
C. The Service Desk is responsible for Problem Management and may be required to work with technical
teams to diagnose Problems
D. The Service Desk is responsible for Problem Management and uses known errors to aid fast resolution
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of these answers would NOT be a suitable area to include in your service ethics code of
conduct?
A. A list of expected behaviour to ensure that all Service Desk employees understand what the
organisation expects of them
B. Standards of moral and ethical behaviour
C. How to manage risk on behalf of the organisation
D. Specific techniques for dealing with difficult business partners
Answer: D

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NO.3 You need to get a project and its budget approved by your board, which of these options would be the
most appropriate action to take?
A. Ensure that all stakeholders are sent regular operational reports about the project
B. Organise a conference for board members to discuss the project in detail
C. Build a business-based project plan to present to senior management
D. Write a full report on your opinion of the project and those responsible
Answer: C

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NO.4 Your IT director has told you that your team must follow best practice. What is a major benefit of so
doing?
A. Customers and employees will feel more satisfied with the service provided by your team
B. Senior management meetings will not dwell on the failings of your team
C. The speed of resolution becomes the sole focus of everyones attention
D. Team members are less likely to be involved in cross-department projects
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which statement best describes some of the characteristics of a successful Service Desk?
A. Measurements are published when the KPIs have been met or exceeded: Service Improvement
Programmes are discussed
B. Satisfaction surveys for both staff and customers are considered superfluous: resource management
is reviewed annually
C. Leadership practices ensure that future direction is clearly laid out: policies are documented, regularly
reviewed and monitored
D. Benchmarking is pencilled in for the next financial cycle: Continual Service Improvement will be
discussed at that time
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is the key outcome of keeping commitments to users, team members and organisations?
A. It boosts credibility, trust and customer satisfaction
B. It boosts the teams importance and status
C. It enhances the problem-solving capability of the team
D. It demonstrates dedication to continued service improvement
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of these options most closely represents the overall mission of the Service Desk?
A. to promote the use of self-help tools and drive down support costs
B. to provide high-quality and consistent user and technical support
C. to continually improve the quality of IT services
D. to present the best possible public image to customers and users
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of these options best describes the value of adopting a resource-planning model?
A. It helps even out the handling of calls across the day or shift
B. It quantifies the staffing required to meet SLA and business needs
C. It provides a sound recruitment base for consistent staffing
D. It boosts staff retention
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of these options is NOT a responsibility of the Service Desk?
A. Developing and implementing Service Desk goals that integrate with business objectives
B. Representing the IT organisation to its users
C. Maintaining the highest level of productive IT time for users in accordance with the SLA
D. Providing the user with root cause analysis for Incidents resolved at first level
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which option is a clear objective of having a Service Desk mission statement?
A. To inform staff to follow procedures
B. To get IT resolver groups working to clear OLAs
C. To show IT management how the Service Desk is structured
D. To obtain commitment and buy-in to the Service Desk
Answer: D

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NO.11 You have recently been promoted to Service Desk Manager and you are keen to show how much you
wish to succeed in this role. Which statement best describes some of the skills that will help you to
succeed?
A. Excellent influencing skills, exemplary debating and creative writing skills
B. A University Degree in Computer Sciences and strong negotiating skills
C. Strong team building skills, excellent people-management and communication skills
D. Time management skills excellent technical and analytical skills
Answer: C

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NO.12 You are explaining the role of the Service Desk to your new analysts. Which of these options best
describes one of the key requirements?
A. The Service Desks role is to provide a high-quality service promptly and consistently
B. The Service Desks role is to resolve users Problems and record all Change Requests
C. The Service Desks role is to initiate other support teams into the Standard Operating Procedures of the
Service Desk
D. The Service Desks role is to act as a single point of contact for all organisational enquiries
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which of these options is the best way in which you can use formal or informal networks to help
develop your ideas?
A. Recommend holding off-site meetings in a local pub
B. Develop scenarios that will demonstrate how your suggestions and plans will raise everyones profiles
C. Hold meetings with stakeholders to obtain their support for your proposals
D. Hold meetings with your team to discuss aspects of your proposals
Answer: C

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NO.14 Performing a skills gap analysis and identifying appropriate salary levels are preparatory requirements
for what?
A. Service Desk recruitment
B. Service Catalogue definition
C. Service Level Agreement negotiation
D. Skills Matrix creation
Answer: A

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NO.15 You are trying to promote the Service Desk through a variety of recognised and effective channels.
Which of these statements best describes a channel to use?
A. Articles in the local newspaper and Have a Go days
B. Open house days and distributing Service Desk fliers
C. Distributing free pens and Service Desk induction training
D. Induction training and team-building away days
Answer: B

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NO.16 You intend to implement some far-reaching changes to the way in which your Service Desk currently
operates, but to do so you need the support of other teams within IT. Which action should you undertake
to gain this support?
A. Give a presentation to the board of directors to guarantee their support
B. Make time to develop a social relationship with your manager
C. Demonstrate your understanding of any concerns others may have
D. Begin by creating a powerfully-worded vision statement
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which of these options would be a typical feature of an On-going survey?
A. It is carried out on a six monthly cycle
B. It is executed as soon as possible after a call is closed
C. It is conducted with a minimum of 10 questions to be comprehensive
D. It is designed to show longer term trends in customer satisfaction
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which of the following is a key objective of the IT Service Continuity Management (ITSCM) process?
A. To eliminate single points of contact for services
B. To eliminate single points of failure for services
C. To remove critical resources for services
D. To remove long term workarounds for services
Answer: B

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NO.19 If you choose to implement a formal standard rather than a best practice, which would be the best
description of the difference?
A. A best practice does not need evidence to prove progress, a formal standard does
B. A formal standard may not be ITIL compliant, a best practice would be
C. A best practice demonstrates good governance, a formal standard demonstrates adherence
D. Best practice does not include ISO/IEC 20000, a formal standard includes ITIL
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which of the following is a business best practice quality model?
A. COBIT
B. SLM
C. ITIL
D. Six Sigma
Answer: D

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NO.21 Which of these options is a primary objective of the Service Asset and Configuration Management
process?
A. To record the ownership of every item of hardware and software in the asset base
B. To ensure that IT services, assets, resources and processes are properly managed and maintained
C. To clearly identify the business dependencies of each inventory item
D. To map assets into a clear network infrastructure diagram
Answer: B

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NO.22 Which of these options is NOT an element of successful project management?
A. Managing costs
B. Ensuring a continual improvement focus
C. Developing technical solutions
D. Defining project objectives
Answer: C

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NO.23 Which of these options is NOT likely to be a role of the Service Desk?
A. To balance support expenses to keep IT support performing at the optimum levels of quality and cost
effectiveness
B. To integrate support goals with business goals
C. To provide individual and personal IT support to each business user
D. To report on service breaches and their reasons
Answer: C

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NO.24 Which of these options would be a management activity in directing, controlling and co-ordinating
activities?
A. Providing guidance to staff when needed
B. Providing an efficient ergonomic office environment
C. Developing and documenting staff management procedures
D. Developing and implementing an effective IT platform
Answer: A

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NO.25 The Service Desk has a strategic role to play within an organisation, which of these options best
describes a method you could use to ensure that you are able to develop clear, insightful strategies?
A. Understand and communicate how the Service Desk assists the organisation in meeting its team
objectives
B. Familiarise yourself with the goals and objectives of other organisations
C. A best practice demonstrates good governance, a formal standard demonstrates adherence
D. Network with people in other organisations and within the support industry and your communities
Answer: D

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NO.26 Which option best describes the expectations of the Service Desk's users?
A. They have confidence that the Service Desk is in control of their Incident or Service Request when
speaking to a senior team member
B. Their incident is professionally managed and they receive consistent and courteous service
C. Their Incidents are resolved very quickly and they are periodically informed of progress
D. They are provided with good decision data and feedback on all their Incidents
Answer: B

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NO.27 Which of these options would be a practical way to gain an understanding of other countries cultures?
A. Study the religion practised in the region surrounding the country
B. Take a course in international business or cross-cultural studies
C. Travel to several countries in the area of the country
D. Read travel books about the country
Answer: B

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NO.28 What is the value of telephone support in a Service Desk?
A. First contact resolution
B. Increased turnaround times
C. Reduced abandon rate
D. Skills-based routing
Answer: A

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NO.29 Typically, what might a vision statement identify for the Service Desk?
A. Short-term goals
B. Medium-term objectives
C. Long-term goals
D. Ongoing operational objectives
Answer: C

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NO.30 What is the purpose of a Service Desk vision statement?
A. To assist staff in achieving their dream goals in their future careers
B. To help management see where the Service Desk is going strategically
C. To keep the Service Desk in the forefront of user minds
D. To ensure that all staff understand the vision and consistently work towards it
Answer: D

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NO.1 Nextair Corporation has determined the hardware running BlackBerry Enterprise Server software
version 4.1.6 will be insufficient to handle version 5.0. They plan to perform a cutover upgrade using the
existing SQL database. What is an advantage of implementing this strategy? (Choose one)
A. There is no downtime for other BlackBerry Enterprise Server software version 4.1.6 instances sharing
the same SQL database
B. They will save the cost of an additional SRP Identifier
C. There is no need to back up the database prior to upgrade
D. The SQL database must be hosted locally to the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
Answer: B

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NO.2 After upgrading two Blackberry Enterprise Server instances to software version 5.0 services books and
IT polices are automatically updated and sent to BlackBerry devices running which minimum version of
BlackBerry Device Software? (Choose one)
A. 3.8 and above
B. 4.0 and above
C. 4.2 and above
D. 4.3 and above
E. 5.0 and above
Answer: B

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NO.3 One thousand BlackBerry 8830 devices have been sent to the employees in the regional offices and the
BlackBerry device users will be issued enterprise activation passwords next week.
Management would like to prevent unneeded wireless data charges. What can be done to ensure this
mass enterprise activation process uses as little wireless data as possible? (Choose one)
A. Set the 'Disable Wireless Activations' IT policy to 'True'
B. Set the 'Disable Wireless Bulk Loads' IT policy to 'True'
C. Set the 'Disable Enterprise Activation Progress' IT policy to 'True'
D. Set theisable Wireline Activations' IT policySet the ?isable Wireline Activations' IT policy to 'True'
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which tool can be used to help control the amount of data the BlackBerry Synchronization Service
sends after an upgrade to BlackBerry Enterprise Server software version 5.0 is complete? (Choose one)
A. SBInjector
B. PolcTrait
C. TraitTool
D. SBThrottle
E. SyncControl
Answer: C

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NO.5 Management has requested that the ability to activate BlackBerry devices on the BlackBerry Enterprise
Server be restricted to approved BlackBerry device models only. What can be used to accommodate this
request? (Choose one)
A. IT Policy
B. PIN to Model Mapping
C. Enterprise Service Policy
D. Application Control Policy
E. Group Filter
Answer: C

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NO.1 Is it possible to tell the MySQL server to throw an error on division-by-zero rather than converting it to
NULL and a warning?
A. No, it has to be done programmatically.
B. Yes, by updating a system variable.
C. Yes, there is a SQL mode that exists for that.
D. No, division-by-zero is always converted regardless of any setting.
Answer: C

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NO.2 The stored function year_to_date is created by the 'root'@'localhost' account as follows:
CREATE FUNCTION year_to_date ()
RETURNS DECIMAL(10,2)
SQL SECURITY DEFINER
BEGIN
...
END;
Within the routine body, a number of calculations are made on data in the financials table and the
calculated value is returned. The only account which can access the financials table is 'root'@'localhost'.
If a client connects with the account 'joe'@'localhost' and calls the year_to_date function, what will
happen?
A. The function will not execute, as 'joe'@'localhost' does not have access to the financials table
B. The function will not execute as SQL SECURITY DEFINER has been specified. It would execute if
instead SQL SECURITY INVOKER had been specified
C. The function will always execute as if it was 'root'@'localhost' that invoked it since SQL SECURITY
DEFINER has been specified.
D. If the account 'joe'@'localhost' has the EXECUTE privilege on year_to_date, the function will complete
successfully
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following statements are true regarding the structure of grant tables in new distributions?
A. They change with every upgrade.
B. They are often changed.
C. They remain the same for backwards compatibility.
Answer: B

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NO.4 In regards to security, which of the following statements are true?
A. mysqld should not be run as root or administrator.
B. mysqld should be run as root or administrator.
C. The user owning the server process should own all files and directories to which the server may write.
D. The root or admininistrator users should own all files related to the server process
Answer: AC

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NO.5 Which of the following best describe the effects on performance for the dynamic-row format for
MyISAM has?
A. Retrievals are more complex and slower.
B. Retrievals are less complex and are faster.
C. Rows generally take up less disk space than fixed-row format.
D. Rows generally take up more disk space than fixed-row format.
Answer: AC

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NO.6 Consider the following:
mysql> EXPLAIN SELECT Name FROM Country WHERE Code = 'CAN'
*************************** 1. row ***************************
id: 1
select_type: SIMPLE
table: Country
type: const
possible_keys: PRIMARY
key: PRIMARY
key_len: 3
ref: const
rows: 1
Extra:
Which of the following best describes the meaning of the value of the type column?
A. The table has exactly one row.
B. Several rows may be read from the table.
C. Only one row of all its rows need to be read.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following are important network factors for remote MySQL clients?
A. Latency.
B. Firewalls.
C. Throughput speed.
D. The type of routers used.
Answer: AC

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NO.8 In the following query, the Population column is indexed:
mysql> EXPLAIN SELECT Name
-> FROM Country
-> WHERE Code LIKE '%B%' AND Population > 10000
*************************** 1. row ***************************
id: 1
select_type: SIMPLE
table: Country
type: ALL
possible_keys: i_pop
key: NULL
key_len: NULL
ref: NULL
rows: 239
Extra: Using where
Which of the following best describes how to deal with the key value of the EXPLAIN output?
A. Use FORCE KEY
B. Use USE INDEX.
C. Use FORCE INDEX.
D. Use USE POSSIBLE_KEY
Answer: BC

MYSQL   006-002   006-002   006-002 test   006-002

NO.9 Which of the following optimizations could be made based on data collected in the slow query log?
A. Tune server parameters.
B. Change the storage engines in use.
C. Make changes to the network infrastructure.
D. Rewrite queries to perform more efficiently.
E. Normalize data or add indexes to the tables that the queries use.
Answer: ABDE

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NO.10 Can multi-column FULLTEXT indexes be used? If so, when?
A. No, they can not be used.
B. Yes, they should be used to search multiple columns simultaneously.
C. Yes, they can be used to search either one or all of the indexed columns.
Answer: B

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NO.11 When working with replication, why might you want to stop the SQL thread on the slave while keeping
the I/O thread running?
A. So that no changes are made while making backups.
B. So that events for the slave do not get backlogged on the master.
C. So that remaining events can be processed while not receiving new events from the master.
Answer: AB

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NO.12 What kind of replication is supported by the MySQL server?
A. Multiple-master replication
B. Master to slave replication
C. Single file based clustering
D. MySQL doesn't support replication
Answer: B

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NO.13 What are reasons to prefer using GRANT and REVOKE statements over editing the privilege tables
directly?
A. Using GRANT and REVOKE allows the server to figure out the right tables and do all the appropriate
work
B. All grant tables in memory are immediately updated on GRANT and REVOKE
C. Making changes directly to the grant tables, one must remember to execute flush privileges to make
the changes take effect
D. GRANT and REVOKE statements allow you to do more fine-grained tuning of user privileges than
does editing the grant tables directly.
E. None of the above
Answer: ABC

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NO.14 When performing diagnostic functions on a server should excessive start and stop messages be looked
for in the error log, and why?
A. No, start and stop messages are of no relevance to diagnostics.
B. Yes, because there is a bug in mysqld that can cause multiple start and stop messages to be inserted
in the log.
C. No, because they will not provide any information as to what is wrong.
D. Yes, because they can indicate that there is something causing the server to restart unexpectedly and
not due to normal startup and shutdown.
Answer: D

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NO.15 The user 'joe' connecting from the host example.com has full access to all databases on the server:
mysql> SHOW GRANTS FOR 'joe'@'example.com';
+----------------------------------------------------+
| Grants for joe@example.com |
+----------------------------------------------------+
| GRANT ALL PRIVILEGES ON *.* TO 'joe'@'example.com' |
+----------------------------------------------------+
1 row in set (0.00 sec)
You need to restrict the user from accessing the mysql database. Will the following statement do this?
REVOKE ALL PRIVILEGES ON mysql.* FROM 'joe'@'example.com'
A. Yes
B. No
C. The answer cannot be determined from the information provided.
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which of the following best describes what MASTER_LOG_FILE and MASTER_LOG_POS provides?
A. The path of the log file.
B. The file to log replication actions to.
C. The masters binary log name used for replication.
D. The position in the masters binary log in which to start replication.
Answer: CD

MYSQL questions   006-002   006-002

NO.17 Which of the following statements are true of compressed tables?
A. They can be uncompressed.
B. They can not be uncompressed.
C. They can be uncompressed but some data corruption may occur.
Answer: A

MYSQL   006-002 exam   006-002

NO.18 Assuming that the user account 'joe'@'example.com' exists, executing DROP USER
'joe'@'example.com' has the following consequences:
A. The user account will immediately be removed from the server, if no object-level privileges are in effect
for that account
B. The account will be removed from the server the next time FLUSH PRIVILEGES is executed, if no
object-level privileges are in effect for that account
C. The account and all associated privileges will immediately be removed from the server
D. The user account and all associated privileges will be removed from the server the next time FLUSH
PRIVILEGES is executed.
Answer: C

MYSQL   006-002   006-002

NO.19 Which of the following would be considered a good candidate table for compression?
A. A table with data that needs only few updates in the future.
B. A table with data that will not be updated in the future.
C. A large table, such as those used for data warehousing.
D. All MyISAM tables are good candidates for compression.
Answer: B

MYSQL   006-002   006-002   006-002   006-002

NO.20 Which of the following is/are valid reasons to consider using --skip-networking?
A. Your server is not networked to other servers.
B. You do not have a need for remote clients to connect.
C. You have a need for remote clients to connect.
D. You are not going to use replication or clustering.
Answer: B

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NO.21 Which of the following best describes why InnoDB tables should always have primary keys and why
they should be short?
A. Because InnoDB uses primary keys to locate tables, and shorter keys make quicker lookups.
B. Because InnoDB uses primary keys to locate table rows, and shorter keys make quicker lookups.
C. Because InnoDB stores pointers in a log to all the primary keys and shorter keys make this log smaller.
Answer: B

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NO.22 How can stored routines be used to check for constraints or legality of incoming data?
A. They can make use of the VALIDATE DEFINER setting.
B. They can not be used to check for constraints or legality of data.
C. They can check and only perform an action if the incoming values match a specified value.
Answer: C

MYSQL   006-002   006-002 test

NO.23 Which of the following statements are true regarding wildcards in the host name of an account
specification?
A. The '%' character is used to match any number of characters or numbers
B. The '*' character is used to match any number of characters or numbers
C. The '_' character is used to match any number of characters or numbers
D. The '.' character is used to match any single character or number
E. Wildcards may be used to match any number of characters at the beginning of the host name or IP
address only
F. Wildcards may be used to match any number of characters at the end of the host name or IP address
only
G. Wildcards may be used to match any number of characters anywhere in the host name or IP address
Answer: AG

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NO.24 The type of file system you chose may affect MySQL use and/or performance with regard to...
A. Table opening time.
B. Size limits of files.
C. Time to recover from a crash.
D. The number of users MySQL can handle.
E. The type of storage engines that can be used.
Answer: ABC

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NO.25 Does max_connections have an affect on the number of slaves that may connect to a master?
A. No, because slaves are not really clients.
B. Yes, because each slave is effectively a connected user.
C. No, because slaves do not use the same type of connection as a regular client.
D. Yes, because if the server has too many connections, it may slow the slaves down.
Answer: B

MYSQL   006-002 test   006-002   006-002 questions

NO.26 Consider the following EXPLAIN output.
mysql> EXPLAIN SELECT Name FROM City WHERE Population > 8000000
*************************** 1. row ***************************
id: 1
select_type: SIMPLE
table: City
type: ALL
possible_keys: NULL
key: NULL
key_len: NULL
ref: NULL
rows: 4079
Extra: Using where
Which of the following statements are true?
A. The query cannot be optimized any better.
B. No index could be used to perform the query.
C. All 4079 rows of the table need to examined.
D. The Name column should be indexed.
E. The Population column should be indexed.
Answer: BCE

MYSQL certification training   006-002 original questions   006-002   006-002   006-002 original questions

NO.27 Which of the following statements best describe the key buffer?
A. It is a global buffer.
B. It is set on a per-connection basis.
C. It caches index blocks for MyISAM tables only.
D. It caches index blocks for InnoDB tables only.
E. It caches index blocks for all storage engine tables.
Answer: AC

MYSQL   006-002 study guide   006-002   006-002 test   006-002

NO.28 For which of the following objects can privileges be specified?
A. Host
B. Global
C. Database
D. Table
E. Column
F. Row
Answer: BCDE

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NO.29 Which of the following best describes what the master.info file contains and how it is used?
A. It contains the values from the CHANGE MASTER statement.
B. When the slave restarts it looks for which master to use from this file.
C. It contains information about the master server, its slaves and its configuration.
D. It is used by an administrator to determine what slaves connect to the master, and other information
about the master server.
Answer: AB

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NO.30 What type of resource limitations may be placed on a user account with the GRANT statement?
A. The number of times per hour that an account is allowed to connect to the server
B. The number of queries per hour an account is allowed to issue
C. The number of updates per hour an account is allowed to issue
D. The maximum number of simultaneous connections an account can have
E. Resource limits can only be specified globally, not per-account
F. MySQL does not have provisions for limiting resource usage
Answer: ABCD

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Exam Code: C_TAW12_70
Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Development Associate - ABAP with SAP NetWeaver 7.0)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 334 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 If you do not SUPPRESS DIALOG in a dynpro before you LEAVE TO LIST-PROCESSING, the following
Mill happen (More than one answer is correct)
A.The screen will be displayed with the report that was built, but the gui-stus will be the one fromo the
previous screen
B.The report will be displayed on the screen only after the user presses the enter key
C.The previous screen (calling screen) will be redisplayed
D.The screen will be displayed, and will be empty
Answer: B, D

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NO.2 What is true about calling a screen (More than one answer is correct)
A.A screen can be called from within a function module
B.Screens should be called from PBO modules
C.Screens can be called from PAI modules
D.A screen can be called from a report program
Answer: A, C, D

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NO.3 Where does information come from when you press F1 on a screen field?
A.Da element documention
B.Domain short text
C.Search help
D.Domain Help values
Answer: A

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NO.4 In what case are bstrips good candidates?(More than one answer is correct)
A.When Users need the ability to navigate freely between components
B.When Navigation between components is predetermined in a fixed manner
C.When several components of an application need to be displayed on one screen
Answer: A, C

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NO.5 What controls the dialogue behavior of a search help?(More than one answer is correct)
A.Admin da
B.DPOS
C.SPOS
D.LPOS
E.Value Range
Answer: C, D

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NO.6 If you are building a bstrip to be handled at the presention level. What function type should be
assigned to the b title?
A.P
B.T
C.Blank
D.F
E.E
Answer: A, B

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NO.7 What is true about a logical dabase program?
A.Any Node that is accessed requires the Node to be defined in the NODES stement
B.The Put Stement in the LDB provides da for the Get Event in the report program
C.Get Event in the report program requests da from the Put Stement
D.You can access hierarchically higher tables in your program even though there is no table stement for
the table
Answer: B

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NO.8 What object is not supported by the Modification assisnt?
A.User exits
B.Text Elements
C.Functions
D.Menus
Answer: A

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NO.9 Identify the situation Where Append Structures are not allowed.
(More than one answer is correct)
A.If the last field has a domain of da type curr
B.If the last field is already an Append Structure
C.If the table conins a field of da type LCHR or LRAW
D.If the table is a pooled or cluster table
Answer: C, D

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NO.10 Which of the following types of enhancements do not need to be assigned to an enhancement project?
(More than one answer is correct)
A.Keyword
B.Field exit
C.Menu exit
D.Screen
E.Program exit
Answer: A, B

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NO.11 Makr the valid asynchronous update bunding technique.
A.UPDATE
B.CALL FUNCTION.. .. IN UPDATE SK
C.PERFORM ASYNCHRONOUS
D.PERFORM.. .. ON COMMIT
Answer: B

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NO.12 You have issued a Set Title bar in the PBO of your screen, Hon long Will the title remain active?
A.Until the Next screen change
B.Until the next Set TitleBar stement
C.Until the next DB Luw
Answer: B

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NO.13 Mark the three system fields that are continuously mainined by the list
(More than one answer is correct)
A.SY-LINSZ
B.SY-TITLE
C.SY-LINNO
D.SY-COLNO
E.SY-PAGNO
Answer: C, D, E

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NO.14 Mark the valid usage of Read stement(More than one answer is correct)
A.DO. Read Line SY-INDEX. ENDDO
B.Read Line 3 of Current Page
C.Read Line 3 of Next Page
D.Read Current Line of table IB
Answer: A, B

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NO.15 What type of memory is typically used as default values for screen fields?
A.SAP memory
B.ABAP/4 memory
C.Shared Memory
Answer: A

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NO.16 What is conined in the system variatable sy-Linsz?
A.Row count of the current line
B.Height of the current line
C.Width of the current line
D.Size of vertical bars in your list
Answer: C

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NO.17 What is true about the following code?
A.The Module Validate is processed if both FLIGHT and CARRID are other than the initial value
B.The Module Validate is processed if at least one of the fields FLIGHT or CARRID are other than the
initial value
C.The Module Validate is processed only if both FLIGHT and CARRID are initial values
D.The Module Validate is never processed
Answer: B

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NO.18 What is needed to ensure a check field is verified against the referred key field of the check table?
A.same da type only is required for check field and referenced field
B.all key fields MUST have domain equality between check table and foreign key table
C.same domain is required for check field and referenced field
D.same da element is required for check field and referenced field
Answer: C

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NO.19 How does a customer benefit by using SSCR?
A.To log enhancements made by a development user
B.To log Customizing made by a development user
C.To log modifications made by a development user
Answer: C

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NO.20 What does the DESCRIBE TABLE stement provide to the program?
A.Access Type
B.Key Definition
C.Key Uniqueness
D.Key length
Answer: A

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NO.21 Which transaction is used to make dictionary adjustments when upgrading versions of SAP?
A.SPAU
B.SP01
C.SPDD
D.CMOD
Answer: C

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NO.22 In PBO, what field conins the tol number of lines in table control tc_flight
A.TC_FLIGHT_LINES
B.SY-DYNNR
C.SY-STEPL
D.TC_FLIGHT-TOL_LINES
Answer: A

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NO.23 Which of the following methods require higher Maintenance when new releases of SAP are installed?
A.Enhancements to the SAP Sndard
B.Append Structures
C.Customizing
D.Modifications to the SAP Sndard
Answer: D

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NO.24 What message type does not implicitly trigger dabase commits for the table updates specified in your
program?
A.I type MESSAGE stement
B.A type MESSAGE stement
C.E type MESSAGE stement
D.W type MESSAGE stement
E.S type MESSAGE stement
Answer: B

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NO.25 Mark the Program Attribute that is used to define a Dialogue Program?
A.R
B.D
C.1
D.M
Answer: D

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NO.26 If the program has SRT-OF-SELECTION event and you program stement between the REPORT
stement and the first event keyword or form stement, the stement are than included with which processing
block
A.SRT-OF-SELECTION
B.END-OF-SELECTION
C.Initialization
D.No Processing Block
Answer: A

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NO.27 A screen field has been dynamically changed in a dialog program. When does it get re-initialized?
A.At the end of the transaction
B.Only when the program encounters more code to modify the field attributes
C.At PAI execution
D.At PBO execution
Answer: D

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NO.28 On what line does the output AAAA
appear in the following code?
A.9
B.2
C.1
D.10
Answer: B

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NO.29 Identify the different type categories in the ABAP dictionary (More than one answer is correct)
A.table Types
B.Da Models
C.Structures
D.Da definitions
E.Da Elements
Answer: A, C, E

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NO.30 Your screen has a table control defined to it. In the PAI, what does the SY-LOOPC system variatable
conin?
A.Number of table control lines
B.Loop Counter
C.Number of filled lines
Answer: C

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